A nurse is collecting data on a client who has a heart rate of 44/min.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Choice A rationale:

Colostrum, the initial breast milk produced after childbirth, is crucial for a newborn's health because it contains a high concentration of antibodies, also known as immunoglobulins (IgA), which provide passive immunity to the baby. These antibodies are essential because a newborn's immune system is immature and not yet capable of producing its antibodies. IgA antibodies in colostrum help protect the baby against various infections, including respiratory and gastrointestinal illnesses. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the importance of colostrum in providing immune protection for the newborn.

Choice B rationale:

Colostrum does not primarily provide vitamin K. While vitamin K is essential for newborns to prevent bleeding disorders, it is not the primary function of colostrum. Colostrum's primary role is to provide immune protection.

Choice C rationale:

Colostrum does contain trace amounts of iron, but its iron content is not the primary reason for its importance. Iron stores in a newborn's body are typically established during the third trimester of pregnancy, and colostrum is not a significant source of iron for the baby. The primary role of colostrum is to provide antibodies, not iron.

Choice D rationale:

Colostrum does not contain a natural diuretic. Its purpose is not to stimulate the newborn to void. Instead, it focuses on providing immune protection and essential nutrients for the baby's initial growth and development.

The correct answer is choice B and C.

Choice A rationale:

Cervical insufficiency is a condition where the cervix begins to shorten and open too early during pregnancy, leading to premature birth or loss of an otherwise healthy pregnancy. However, the client’s symptoms do not indicate cervical insufficiency. There are no reports of lower abdominal pressure, mild pelvic cramps, or a change in vaginal discharge, which are common symptoms of cervical insufficiency.

Choice B rationale:

The client’s severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen, +3 pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities, and hyperactive reflexes (patellar reflex 4+) are indicative of severe preeclampsia. One of the complications of severe preeclampsia is seizures, also known as eclampsia. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing seizures.

Choice C rationale:

Placental abruption is a serious pregnancy complication in which the placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely. The client’s report of decreased fetal movement could be a sign of placental abruption. In addition, severe preeclampsia can increase the risk of placental abruption. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing placental abruption.

Choice D rationale:

Heart failure occurs when the heart can’t pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs. While preeclampsia can eventually affect many organ systems including the cardiovascular system, there are no immediate signs of heart failure in the client’s symptoms.

Choice E rationale:

Hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar levels. The client’s symptoms do not suggest hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia typically include confusion, dizziness, feeling shaky, hunger, headaches, irritability, pounding heart or irregular heartbeat, sweating, trembling or tremors, and weakness. In conclusion, based on the client’s symptoms and clinical presentation, she is at greatest risk for developing seizures (Choice B) and placental abruption (Choice C) due to severe preeclampsia.