A nurse is completing discharge teaching to a patient who has seizures and received a vagal nerve stimulator to decrease seizure activity. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

You should place a magnet over the implantable device when you feel an aura occurring

It's safe to use a microwave that is 12,000 watts or less

You should avoid the use of CT scan with contrast

It's recommended that you use a burst catheter for pain management .

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale:
Magnet activation: Placing a magnet over the implantable device activates an on-demand feature of the VNS, delivering extra stimulation to the vagus nerve. This can potentially disrupt or shorten a seizure, especially when used at the onset of an aura (a warning sign that a seizure may be imminent).
Patient empowerment: Teaching the patient how to use the magnet provides them with a sense of control and a way to actively manage their seizures. It can reduce anxiety and improve quality of life.
Choice B rationale:
Microwave safety: While there's no definitive evidence that microwaves directly interfere with VNS devices, manufacturers generally recommend avoiding close or prolonged exposure to microwaves as a precaution. Specific guidelines may vary, but they often suggest keeping a distance of at least 15-20 inches from microwaves. The statement in Choice B about 12,000 watts or less is inaccurate and misleading.
Choice C rationale:
CT scans with contrast: There's no contraindication for patients with VNS to undergo CT scans with contrast. The device is designed to withstand common imaging procedures.
Choice D rationale:
Pain management: Burst catheters are typically used for pain management after surgery or during childbirth. They have no direct relevance to VNS therapy or seizure management.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Flu-like symptoms: These are common during the early stages of HIV infection, often within 2-4 weeks after exposure to the virus. They are a result of the body's immune system responding to the virus. Symptoms can include:
Fever Fatigue

Muscle aches

Headache Sore throat

Rash

Swollen lymph nodes
Night sweats: These are also common in early HIV infection and can be caused by the body's attempts to fight off the virus or by inflammation. They can also be a side effect of some HIV medications.

Choice B rationale:
Kaposi's sarcoma (KS): This is a type of cancer that is associated with HIV infection. It is caused by a virus called Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV). KS often appears as purple or red lesions on the skin or in the mouth. It can also affect other organs, such as the lungs and lymph nodes. However, it's not a common initial symptom of HIV infection. It usually develops in later stages of HIV when the immune system is severely weakened.

Choice C rationale:
Fungal and bacterial infections: People with HIV are more susceptible to infections because the virus weakens their immune system. However, fungal and bacterial infections are not typically among the initial symptoms of HIV infection. They usually occur in later stages of the disease when the immune system is more compromised.

Choice D rationale:
Pneumocystis lung infection (PCP): This is a serious lung infection that is caused by a fungus called Pneumocystis jirovecii. It is a common opportunistic infection in people with HIV, but it is not typically an initial symptom. It usually develops in later stages of HIV when the CD4 count (a measure of immune system health) is very low.

A. Candidiasis B. Xerostomia C. Halitosis D. Gingivitis

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a fungal infection caused by Candida albicans. It commonly affects the mouth, causing white patches on the tongue, inner cheeks, gums, or tonsils.
Individuals with AIDS often have weakened immune systems due to a decreased CD4 T-cell count. This makes them more susceptible to opportunistic infections like candidiasis.
The fungal infection can spread to the esophagus, causing difficulty swallowing, or even to the bloodstream, leading to more serious complications.
Choice B rationale:
Xerostomia refers to dry mouth. It can be caused by various factors, including medications, salivary gland dysfunction, or radiation therapy. While it can occur in individuals with AIDS, it's not directly linked to a decreased CD4 T-cell count.
Choice C rationale:
Halitosis, or bad breath, can have multiple causes, including poor oral hygiene, gum disease, or digestive issues. It's not specifically associated with AIDS or a decreased CD4 T-cell count.
Choice D rationale:
Gingivitis is inflammation of the gums, often caused by plaque buildup. It's a common condition, but it's not directly linked to AIDS or a decreased CD4 T-cell count.

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A nurse is completing discharge teaching to a patient who has seizures and received a vagal nerve stimulator to decrease seizure activity. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Nursing Test Bank

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Explanation

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