A nurse is completing the admission assessment of a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has severe preeclampsia. Which of the following is an expected finding?
Polyuria
Report of headache
Tachycardia
Absence of clonus
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Polyuria is not an expected finding in a client with severe preeclampsia, as it can indicate dehydration, diabetes, or renal impairment. A client with severe preeclampsia may have oliguria, which is a urine output of less than 500 mL in 24 hours, due to the decreased renal perfusion and function.
Choice B reason: Report of headache is an expected finding in a client with severe preeclampsia, as it can indicate increased intracranial pressure, cerebral edema, or vasospasm. A client with severe preeclampsia may also have other neurological symptoms, such as blurred vision, scotoma, photophobia, or hyperreflexia.
Choice C reason: Tachycardia is not an expected finding in a client with severe preeclampsia, as it can indicate dehydration, infection, anxiety, or fetal distress. A client with severe preeclampsia may have bradycardia, which is a heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute, due to the increased vagal tone and blood pressure.
Choice D reason: Absence of clonus is not an expected finding in a client with severe preeclampsia, as it can indicate normal or decreased neuromuscular irritability. A client with severe preeclampsia may have positive clonus, which is a rhythmic jerking of the foot when the ankle is dorsiflexed, due to the increased reflex excitability and hyperactivity.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Thrombophlebitis is a condition where a blood clot forms in a vein and causes inflammation and pain. The risk factors for thrombophlebitis include immobility, dehydration, obesity, smoking, and cesarean birth. This client is not at increased risk for thrombophlebitis based on the information given.
Choice B reason: Retained placental fragments are pieces of the placenta that remain in the uterus after delivery and can cause bleeding, infection, or uterine subinvolution. The risk factors for retained placental fragments include placenta previa, placenta accreta, manual removal of the placenta, and incomplete separation of the placenta. This client is not at increased risk for retained placental fragments based on the information given.
Choice C reason: Puerperal infection is an infection of the reproductive tract that occurs within six weeks after delivery and can cause fever, malaise, abdominal pain, and foul-smelling lochia. The risk factors for puerperal infection include prolonged rupture of membranes, prolonged labor, multiple vaginal examinations, operative delivery, and retained placental fragments. This client is not at increased risk for puerperal infection based on the information given.
Choice D reason: Uterine atony is a condition where the uterus fails to contract and retract after delivery and can cause excessive bleeding, hypovolemic shock, and hemorrhage. The risk factors for uterine atony include overdistension of the uterus, prolonged labor, oxytocin use, anesthesia, and trauma. This client is at increased risk for uterine atony due to the large size of the newborn, which can overstretch the uterus and impair its ability to contract.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: This statement is incorrect, as it describes the direct Coombs test, not the indirect Coombs test. The direct Coombs test is performed on the newborn's blood, and it detects the presence of maternal antibodies that have attached to the newborn's red blood cells. The direct Coombs test can help diagnose hemolytic disease of the newborn, which is a condition where the maternal antibodies destroy the newborn's red blood cells, causing anemia and jaundice.
Choice B reason: This statement is incorrect, as it is not the purpose of the indirect Coombs test, but rather a possible complication of hemolytic disease of the newborn. Kernicterus is a severe form of jaundice that occurs when the bilirubin level in the blood is very high, and it can cause brain damage, deafness, or death. Kernicterus can be prevented by treating the jaundice with phototherapy or exchange transfusion.
Choice C reason: This statement is correct, as it describes the indirect Coombs test, which is performed on the mother's blood, and it detects the presence of Rh-positive antibodies that have formed in response to the exposure to the Rh-positive blood of the newborn. The indirect Coombs test can help identify the risk of hemolytic disease of the newborn, and guide the administration of Rh immunoglobulin, which is a medication that prevents the formation of Rh-positive antibodies.
Choice D reason: This statement is incorrect, as it is not possible for the newborn to have Rh-negative antibodies, since the newborn has Rh-positive blood. Rh-negative antibodies are produced by Rh-negative individuals who have been exposed to Rh-positive blood, such as Rh-negative mothers who have Rh-positive newborns. Rh-negative antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the Rh-positive red blood cells of the newborn, causing hemolytic disease of the newborn.
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