A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who has heart failure. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?
Encourage fluids.
Measure vital signs every 8 hr.
Obtain weight weekly.
Allow frequent rest periods.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D. Allow frequent rest periods.
Choice A rationale:
Encouraging fluids is not appropriate for a client with heart failure. Clients with heart failure often experience fluid overload due to the heart’s inability to pump effectively, leading to fluid retention. Encouraging additional fluid intake can exacerbate this condition, worsening symptoms such as edema and shortness of breath.
Choice B rationale:
Measuring vital signs every 8 hours may not be frequent enough for a client with heart failure, especially if they are experiencing acute symptoms. More frequent monitoring is often necessary to detect changes in the client’s condition promptly and to manage symptoms effectively.
Choice C rationale:
Obtaining weight weekly is not sufficient for a client with heart failure. Daily weight monitoring is crucial as it helps in detecting fluid retention early. Sudden weight gain can indicate worsening heart failure and the need for adjustments in treatment.
Choice D rationale:
Allowing frequent rest periods is essential for clients with heart failure. These clients often experience fatigue and decreased exercise tolerance due to reduced cardiac output. Frequent rest periods help in managing fatigue and preventing overexertion, which can worsen heart failure symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Aprepitant is an antiemetic medication used to prevent nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Choice A is incorrect because decreased dysrhythmias is not a therapeutic effect of aprepitant. Choice C is incorrect because decreased incisional pain is not a therapeutic effect of aprepitant. Choice D is incorrect because absence of dizziness is not a therapeutic effect of aprepitant. Choice A is not correct because decreased dysrhythmias is not a therapeutic effect of aprepitant. Choice C is not correct because decreased incisional pain is not a therapeutic effect of aprepitant. Choice D is not correct because absence of dizziness is not a therapeutic effect of aprepitant.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Answer is: d. Reposition the client.
Explanation: Repositioning the client can help alleviate pain by redistributing pressure and promoting comfort. Since the client's pain level is relatively low (2 on a scale of 0 to 10), this non-pharmacological intervention is an appropriate initial action.
Choice a. is wrong because maintaining the client on bed rest is not an appropriate action for a pain level of 2. Instead, the nurse should encourage the client to mobilize and perform appropriate exercises to prevent complications related to immobility.
Choice b. is wrong because applying a warm, moist compress to the incision area might not be the best action for a client who is 24 hours postoperative, as it could increase the risk of infection and cause discomfort. Cold compresses are often used in the initial postoperative period to reduce swelling and promote comfort.
Choice c. is wrong because administering an additional dose of pain medication is not necessary at this point, as the client's pain level is relatively low. The nurse should consider non-pharmacological interventions first and reassess the client's pain level to determine the need for further pain relief.
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