A nurse is educating a client with systemic lupus erythematosus about the use of prednisone. Which piece of information should be prioritized?
Prednisone should never be discontinued abruptly.
Long-term effects of prednisone include redistribution of fat.
Prednisone can lead to sodium and fluid retention.
Prednisone might cause the client to feel jittery or nervous.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Prednisone is a corticosteroid that suppresses the body's natural production of cortisol. Cortisol is a hormone that is essential for life, and it plays a role in many important bodily functions, including:
Regulating blood sugar levels Maintaining blood pressure Reducing inflammation Responding to stress
When a person takes prednisone for a long period of time, their body begins to rely on the medication to provide cortisol. If the medication is stopped suddenly, the body cannot produce enough cortisol on its own, which can lead to a life-threatening condition called adrenal insufficiency.
Adrenal insufficiency can cause a variety of symptoms, including: Extreme fatigue
Weakness Dizziness Nausea Vomiting Abdominal pain Confusion
Loss of consciousness
To prevent adrenal insufficiency, it is important to taper off prednisone slowly over a period of time. This allows the body to gradually adjust to producing cortisol on its own.
Here are some additional details about why prednisone should never be discontinued abruptly: The risk of adrenal insufficiency is highest when prednisone has been taken for more than 3 weeks. The longer a person has been taking prednisone, the slower the taper should be.
It is important to follow the tapering instructions provided by the healthcare provider.
If a person experiences any symptoms of adrenal insufficiency, they should seek medical attention immediately.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A serum sodium level of 134 mEq/L (134 mmol/L) is mildly low, but this level of hyponatremia is not typically associated with significant cognitive impairment.
Symptoms of hyponatremia, such as confusion, lethargy, and seizures, usually occur when sodium levels are 125 mEq/L or lower.
However, it's important to monitor this patient for any changes in cognitive status as hyponatremia can worsen and lead to more severe symptoms.
Choice C rationale:
A patient who underwent an open cholecystectomy two days ago may experience some cognitive impairment due to the effects of anesthesia and pain medications.
However, this type of impairment is usually temporary and resolves within a few days.
It's important to assess for cognitive impairment in this patient, but it is not the most urgent priority.
Choice D rationale:
A 32-year-old patient with a 20-pack-year history of smoking is at risk for cognitive impairment due to the long-term effects of smoking on the brain.
However, this risk is typically not as immediate as the risk of cognitive impairment following a stroke.
It's important to educate this patient about the risks of smoking and encourage smoking cessation, but it is not the most urgent priority in terms of cognitive assessment.
Choice B rationale:
An 88-year-old patient who had a hemorrhagic stroke three days ago is at the highest risk for cognitive impairment among the given options.
Hemorrhagic stroke involves bleeding in the brain, which can damage brain tissue and lead to cognitive deficits.
The risk of cognitive impairment is particularly high in older adults, as they may have less cognitive reserve to compensate for the damage caused by the stroke.
Early assessment and intervention for cognitive impairment are crucial for optimizing recovery and quality of life in stroke patients.
Prompt evaluation for cognitive impairment is essential to identify any deficits and initiate appropriate interventions to support the patient's cognitive function and recovery.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. Deep-breathing exercises could potentially worsen stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound caused by a partial obstruction of the upper airway. Deep breathing can increase airflow through the narrowed airway, making the stridor more pronounced and potentially worsening the obstruction. In severe cases, it could lead to complete airway obstruction and respiratory distress.
Risk of aggravation: Deep-breathing exercises could aggravate the underlying cause of stridor, such as laryngeal edema or vocal cord dysfunction, by increasing inflammation or muscle tension in the airway.
Delay in definitive treatment: Focusing on deep-breathing exercises might delay more definitive interventions, such as intubation, which might be necessary to secure the airway and prevent respiratory failure.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. While albuterol nebulizer therapy can be helpful for bronchospasm, it is not the first-line treatment for stridor. Stridor is typically caused by an upper airway obstruction, and albuterol primarily targets the lower airways (bronchioles).
Limited effectiveness: Albuterol might not be effective in reducing stridor caused by upper airway obstruction, as it does not directly address the narrowing of the airway.
Potential for adverse effects: Albuterol can cause tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety, which could further complicate the patient's condition.
Choice C rationale:
Not the most immediate action. While calling a Rapid Response might be necessary if the patient's condition deteriorates, the first priority is to secure the airway and ensure adequate ventilation.
Time-consuming: Activating a Rapid Response team can take several minutes, and the patient's condition might not allow for that delay.
Choice D rationale:
Prioritizes airway management: Intubation is the most effective way to secure the airway and ensure adequate ventilation in a patient with stridor. It bypasses the obstruction and allows for controlled delivery of oxygen and ventilation.
Addresses potential for deterioration: Stridor can rapidly progress to complete airway obstruction, so prompt preparation for intubation is crucial to prevent respiratory failure.
Involves the primary healthcare provider: Consulting the primary health care provider ensures timely decision-making, appropriate medication administration (such as sedatives or paralytics for intubation), and coordination of care.
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