A nurse is emptying a client's urinal when she notices the urine is dark amber, cloudy, and has an unpleasant odor. The nurse should identify that these findings are likely to be the result of which of the following?
Urinary frequency
Urinary tract Infection
Urinary incontinence
Urinary retention
The Correct Answer is B
A. Urinary frequency refers to the need to urinate more often than usual. It does not typically cause changes in the color, clarity, or odor of urine. It may be associated with conditions like urinary tract infections (UTIs) or other urinary issues but does not directly cause dark amber, cloudy, or foul-smelling urine.
B. A UTI is a common cause of changes in urine characteristics. Dark amber color can indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or the presence of blood. Cloudiness suggests the presence of pus or bacteria, while an unpleasant odor can be due to bacterial growth. UTIs often cause these symptoms due to inflammation and infection of the urinary tract.
C. Urinary incontinence refers to involuntary loss of urine. It does not typically cause changes in the appearance or odor of urine unless it leads to urine pooling and subsequent bacterial growth, which could potentially cause odor. However, incontinence itself is not a direct cause of dark amber, cloudy urine with an unpleasant odor.
D. Urinary retention occurs when the bladder does not empty completely or at all. It can lead to concentrated urine (dark amber color) due to prolonged storage in the bladder. Cloudiness and an unpleasant odor can occur if there is bacterial growth in stagnant urine. Therefore, urinary retention can contribute to the observed urine characteristics.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Clean gloves should be worn when entering the room of a client with MRSA to prevent contact transmission of the bacteria. Gloves should be put on before any contact with the client or potentially contaminated surfaces and should be removed and disposed of properly after leaving the room.
B. A surgical mask is generally not necessary for routine care of a client with MRSA unless there is a risk of splashes or sprays of bodily fluids. The main mode of transmission for MRSA is contact, so gloves are the primary protective measure.
C. Sterile gloves are typically not required unless performing sterile procedures directly involving the wound or handling sterile equipment. For routine assessment of the client's pulse, clean gloves are sufficient.
D. Protective eyewear is not necessary for routine care such as checking a client's pulse. It is primarily used when there is a risk of splashes or sprays that could potentially reach the eyes.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. This is a crucial step to prevent aspiration (the inhalation of oral contents into the lungs). Turning the client on their side helps to facilitate drainage and prevents oral fluids and debris from entering the airway during oral care.
B. Using a stiff toothbrush can be harmful to the gums and oral tissues, especially for clients who are unresponsive and may not be able to indicate discomfort. A soft-bristled toothbrush or moistened gauze is recommended for cleaning the teeth and gums to prevent injury and maintain oral hygiene effectively.
C. Applying petroleum jelly or a similar barrier ointment helps to moisturize and protect the lips from dryness and cracking, which can be common in clients who are unresponsive and may not be able to moisten their lips independently.
D. Using the thumb and index finger to keep the client's mouth open is gentle and effective. This technique allows the nurse to visualize and clean the oral cavity adequately without causing discomfort or injury to the client.
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