A nurse is evaluating a client who has postpartum depression after 4 weeks of treatment with cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT).
Which of the following outcomes indicates that CBT is effective?
The client reports increased self-esteem and confidence.
. The client demonstrates increased interest in social activities.
The client verbalizes positive thoughts and beliefs about herself.
All of the above.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D. All of the above outcomes indicate that CBT is effective for postpartum depression. CBT is a psychological treatment that helps women identify and change unhelpful thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that contribute to depression. CBT can improve self-esteem, confidence, social interest, and positive thoughts and beliefs about oneself.
Choice A is wrong because it only covers one aspect of CBT effectiveness.
Self-esteem and confidence are important outcomes, but they are not the only ones.
Choice B is wrong because it only covers one aspect of CBT effectiveness.
Social interest is an indicator of reduced isolation and increased support, but it is not the only one.
Choice C is wrong because it only covers one aspect of CBT effectiveness.
Positive thoughts and beliefs are a key component of CBT, but they are not the only one.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Postpartum blues.According toand, postpartum blues is a self-limited syndrome of mood lability, tearfulness, feeling of inadequacies, lack of appetite, sleep pattern disturbances, and feeling of letdown that affects 85-90% of women in the postpartum period
Choice A is wrong because postpartum fatigue results from the work of labor and does not include tearfulness or feeling of letdown
Choice B is wrong because postpartum psychosis is a severe mental health condition that involves pronounced sadness, disorientation, confusion, paranoia, hallucinations, delusions, and risk of harming oneself or the infant
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Answer and explanation..
The correct answer is choice B. The client has a family history of bipolar disorder.According to the American Psychological Association, a family history of depression or mental illness is one of the risk factors for postpartum depression.Postpartum depression is a mood disorder that affects some women after giving birth and can cause symptoms such as sadness, anxiety, irritability, guilt, and difficulty bonding with the baby.
Choice A is wrong because an uncomplicated vaginal delivery is not a risk factor for postpartum depression.In fact, complications during childbirth can increase the risk of developing this condition.
Choice C is wrong because being 25 years old and primiparous (having given birth for the first time) is not a risk factor for postpartum depression.However, age can be a factor if the mother is very young or older than average.
Choice D is wrong because planning and desiring the pregnancy is not a risk factor for postpartum depression.On the contrary, having an unplanned or unwanted pregnancy can increase the risk of developing this condition.
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