A nurse is helping to place a client into the prone position.
The nurse should use a small pillow to relieve pressure from which of the following areas of the client's body?

Choice A rationale:

Pedal pulses are a measure of peripheral circulation. A 2+ rating is considered normal, indicating a brisk, expected response. There’s no change in the client’s pedal pulses from Day 1 to Day 5, so this doesn’t require immediate follow-up.

Choice B rationale:

Oxygen saturation is not mentioned in the Nurses’ Notes, so we cannot provide a rationale for this choice.

Choice C rationale:

Breath sounds are an important indicator of respiratory health. The client’s breath sounds are clear and present throughout on both Day 1 and Day 5, which is normal and doesn’t require immediate follow-up.

Choice D rationale:

Respiratory rate is not mentioned in the Nurses’ Notes, but any significant change in respiratory rate could indicate a problem such as infection or pain, and would require immediate follow-up.

Choice E rationale:

The abdominal dressing shows a large amount of serosanguinous drainage on Day 5, compared to a small amount on Day 1. This could indicate a complication such as infection or dehiscence (separation of the wound), especially since the client reported feeling something “popped” at the incision site after coughing. This requires immediate follow-up.

Choice F rationale:

Heart rate is not mentioned in the Nurses’ Notes, but any significant change in heart rate could indicate a systemic response to factors such as pain or infection, and would require immediate follow-up. In summary, while pedal pulses and breath sounds remain normal, the change in the abdominal dressing and potential changes in respiratory rate and heart rate (though not documented here) should be addressed immediately to ensure the client’s health and recovery.

The correct answer is choice B and C.

Choice A rationale:

Cervical insufficiency is a condition where the cervix begins to shorten and open too early during pregnancy, leading to premature birth or loss of an otherwise healthy pregnancy. However, the client’s symptoms do not indicate cervical insufficiency. There are no reports of lower abdominal pressure, mild pelvic cramps, or a change in vaginal discharge, which are common symptoms of cervical insufficiency.

Choice B rationale:

The client’s severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen, +3 pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities, and hyperactive reflexes (patellar reflex 4+) are indicative of severe preeclampsia. One of the complications of severe preeclampsia is seizures, also known as eclampsia. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing seizures.

Choice C rationale:

Placental abruption is a serious pregnancy complication in which the placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely. The client’s report of decreased fetal movement could be a sign of placental abruption. In addition, severe preeclampsia can increase the risk of placental abruption. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing placental abruption.

Choice D rationale:

Heart failure occurs when the heart can’t pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs. While preeclampsia can eventually affect many organ systems including the cardiovascular system, there are no immediate signs of heart failure in the client’s symptoms.

Choice E rationale:

Hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar levels. The client’s symptoms do not suggest hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia typically include confusion, dizziness, feeling shaky, hunger, headaches, irritability, pounding heart or irregular heartbeat, sweating, trembling or tremors, and weakness. In conclusion, based on the client’s symptoms and clinical presentation, she is at greatest risk for developing seizures (Choice B) and placental abruption (Choice C) due to severe preeclampsia.