A nurse is instructing a client who is starting COCs for the first time.
The nurse should tell the client that if she misses one pill, she should ?
Take the missed pill as soon as possible and continue with the next pill at the usual time
Take two pills at once and skip the next pill
Discard the missed pill and take the next pill at the usual time
Stop taking the pills for the rest of the cycle and use a backup method of contraception
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. The nurse should tell the client that if she misses one pill, she should take the missed pill as soon as possible and continue with the next pill at the usual time. This will ensure that she maintains a continuous hormonal exposure and does not extend the hormone-free interval beyond 7 days. She does not need to use extra contraception.
Choice B is wrong because taking two pills at once and skipping the next pill will disrupt the hormonal balance and may cause side effects such as nausea or breakthrough bleeding. Choice C is wrong because discarding the missed pill and taking the next pill at the usual time will shorten the duration of hormonal exposure and increase the risk of ovulation. Choice D is wrong because stopping taking the pills for the rest of the cycle and using a backup method of contraception will expose the client to an unnecessary hormone-free interval and may compromise her contraceptive efficacy.
COCs are combined oral contraceptives that contain synthetic estrogen and progestin hormones that prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus to inhibit sperm penetration. The normal range of COCs dosage is 20 to 35 micrograms of estrogen and 0.1 to 3 milligrams of progestin per pill.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B.History of uterine prolapse is a contraindication for the use of a diaphragm as a contraceptive method.Uterine prolapse is a condition where the uterus descends into the vagina, which can interfere with the proper placement and seal of the diaphragm.
Choice A is wrong because history of cervical cancer is not a contraindication for diaphragm use.
Cervical cancer is a malignant tumor of the cervix, which can be treated with surgery, radiation, or chemotherapy.
Diaphragm use does not affect the risk or treatment of cervical cancer.
Choice C is wrong because history of ovarian cysts is not a contraindication for diaphragm use.
Ovarian cysts are fluid-filled sacs that develop in or on the ovaries, which can cause pain, bloating, or irregular periods.
Diaphragm use does not affect the formation or rupture of ovarian cysts.
Choice D is wrong because history of menopause is not a contraindication for diaphragm use.
Menopause is the natural cessation of menstrual cycles and fertility, which occurs around age 50 in most women.
Diaphragm use does not affect the hormonal changes or symptoms of menopause.
Correct Answer is ["B","E"]
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B and E.Bilateral tubal ligation (BTL) is a permanent form of contraception that involves cutting, tying or blocking the fallopian tubes to prevent pregnancy.It can be performed within 24 hours following childbirthand it is immediately effective.
Choice A is wrong because BTL does not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
People who have BTL should still use condoms to prevent STIs.
Choice C is wrong because BTL does not increase the risk for an ectopic pregnancy.
An ectopic pregnancy is when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube.
BTL prevents fertilization by blocking the passage of eggs and sperm.
Choice D is wrong because BTL does not require abdominal surgery with general anesthesia.
BTL can be done using different methods, such as laparoscopy, minilaparotomy, or hysteroscopy.
These methods use small incisions or no incisions at all and can be done with local or regional anesthesia.
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