A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has an intrauterine device (IUD) in place and asks how it prevents pregnancy.
Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
“It releases hormones that thicken cervical mucus and prevent ovulation.”.
“It creates a local inflammatory response that impairs implantation.”.
“It alters tubal motility and interferes with sperm transport.”.
All of the above
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. It creates a local inflammatory response that impairs implantation. This means that the IUD makes the lining of the uterus less suitable for a fertilized egg to attach to it.
Choice A is wrong because it describes how hormonal IUDs work, not copper IUDs. Hormonal IUDs release hormones that thicken cervical mucus and prevent ovulation.
Choice C is wrong because it describes how tubal ligation works, not IUDs. Tubal ligation is a surgical procedure that blocks or cuts the fallopian tubes, which prevents sperm from reaching an egg.
Choice D is wrong because it implies that all of the above choices are correct, which they are not.
Only choice B is correct for copper IUDs.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. The client has a positive pregnancy test result.
This is a contraindication for bilateral tubal ligation because the procedure is a permanent form of contraception and should not be performed on a pregnant woman.
The client should be counseled about other options for birth control or termination of pregnancy.
Choice A is wrong because a history of pelvic inflammatory disease is not a contraindication for bilateral tubal ligation.It may increase the risk of complications from the surgery, such as infection or adhesions, but it does not prevent the procedure from being performed.
Choice C is wrong because a family history of breast cancer is not a contraindication for bilateral tubal ligation.It may affect the client’s decision to undergo the procedure, as some studies have suggested that tubal ligation may reduce the risk of ovarian cancer, which is associated with breast cancer.
However, this is not a medical reason to avoid the surgery.
Choice D is wrong because a history of endometriosis is not a contraindication for bilateral tubal ligation.
It may cause pelvic pain or infertility, but it does not affect the effectiveness or safety of the procedure.In fact, some studies have shown that tubal ligation may improve the symptoms of endometriosis by reducing retrograde menstruation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B.History of uterine prolapse is a contraindication for the use of a diaphragm as a contraceptive method.Uterine prolapse is a condition where the uterus descends into the vagina, which can interfere with the proper placement and seal of the diaphragm.
Choice A is wrong because history of cervical cancer is not a contraindication for diaphragm use.
Cervical cancer is a malignant tumor of the cervix, which can be treated with surgery, radiation, or chemotherapy.
Diaphragm use does not affect the risk or treatment of cervical cancer.
Choice C is wrong because history of ovarian cysts is not a contraindication for diaphragm use.
Ovarian cysts are fluid-filled sacs that develop in or on the ovaries, which can cause pain, bloating, or irregular periods.
Diaphragm use does not affect the formation or rupture of ovarian cysts.
Choice D is wrong because history of menopause is not a contraindication for diaphragm use.
Menopause is the natural cessation of menstrual cycles and fertility, which occurs around age 50 in most women.
Diaphragm use does not affect the hormonal changes or symptoms of menopause.
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