A nurse is monitoring a client who has a head injury and is receiving mannitol 25% via IV infusion. The nurse should identify which of the following as an adverse effect of the medication and report to the provider?
Glasgow coma scale rating of 15
Crackles on auscultation
Increase in urinary output
Intracranial pressure reading of 12mm
The Correct Answer is B
A. Glasgow Coma Scale rating of 15: A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) rating of 15 is a positive sign indicating that the client is fully conscious and oriented. It is not an adverse effect of mannitol.
B. Crackles on auscultation: Crackles, also known as rales, can indicate fluid overload or pulmonary edema, which can be an adverse effect of mannitol. Mannitol can cause shifts of fluid, including into the lungs, leading to pulmonary edema.
C. Increase in urinary output: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic, and an increase in urinary output is an expected and therapeutic effect of the medication. It is not considered an adverse effect.
D. Intracranial pressure reading of 12 mmHg: A decrease in intracranial pressure is a therapeutic effect of mannitol, and a reading of 12 mmHg is generally within a normal range. It is not considered an adverse effect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Increased blood pressure: Heparin does not typically directly affect blood pressure. However, if there are other underlying conditions or complications related to the reason for heparin use, it might indirectly influence blood pressure. But a high aPTT level itself wouldn't directly cause an increase in blood pressure.
B. Decreased temperature: Heparin does not usually affect body temperature. Changes in temperature might occur due to other factors, but they are not directly related to heparin administration or its effects on aPTT.
C. Decreased respiratory rate: Heparin does not typically affect the respiratory rate directly. Changes in respiratory rate might occur due to other causes but are not directly correlated with heparin administration or its effects on aPTT.
D. Increased pulse rate: Heparin, especially when aPTT is elevated, might indicate that the blood is less likely to clot. An increased pulse rate could be indicative of compensatory mechanisms due to potential bleeding or changes in clotting factors influenced by heparin. It's essential to monitor for an increased pulse rate as a potential sign of bleeding complications associated with anticoagulant therapy.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The client's absolute neutrophil count was 2.500/mm before the medication was administered:
This information does not indicate an error in the administration process. The absolute neutrophil count being 2.500/mm before the medication was given is relevant to the client's condition but does not suggest an incident related to the administration of filgrastim.
B. The nurse flushed the client's IV line with dextrose 5% in water before and after the medication was administered:
Flushing the IV line with dextrose 5% in water is a standard practice before and after medication administration. This action helps ensure that the medication is effectively delivered and that the line remains patent. There is no indication of an error in this case.
C. The medication vial sat at room temperature for 2 hr before it was administered:
Filgrastim is a medication that typically requires refrigeration to maintain stability. Allowing it to sit at room temperature for an extended period can affect its efficacy and safety. This is a deviation from the recommended storage conditions and should be reported as an incident to assess potential consequences.
D. The client had chemotherapy 12 hr before the medication was administered:
This information does not necessarily suggest an incident related to the administration of filgrastim. The timing of chemotherapy is an essential consideration in cancer treatment protocols. Filgrastim is often administered to support recovery from the hematopoietic effects of chemotherapy.
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