A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is in pre-term labor and has received indomethacin.
Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor for as a potential complication of the medication?
Decreased platelet count
Increased serum creatinine
Decreased hematocrit
Increased serum potassium
The Correct Answer is B
Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can cause renal impairment and elevated serum creatinine levels in both the mother and the fetus. This can lead to oligohydramnios, reduced fetal urine output, and fetal renal failure.
Therefore, the nurse should monitor the serum creatinine levels of the client and the fetus as a potential complication of indomethacin.
Choice A is wrong because indomethacin does not affect the platelet count. It may increase the risk of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effect, but it does not cause thrombocytopenia.
Choice C is wrong because indomethacin does not cause anemia or decrease the hematocrit. It may cause gastrointestinal bleeding or ulceration, which could lead to anemia, but this is not a common or direct effect of the medication.
Choice D is wrong because indomethacin does not cause hyperkalemia or increase the serum potassium levels. It may cause hyponatremia due to its effect on renal sodium excretion, but it does not affect potassium balance.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Assess fetal heart rate and activity.
The nurse should identify that a client who reports a sudden gush of fluid from her vagina is at risk forpremature rupture of membranes (PROM), which can lead toinfection,cord prolapse, andfetal distress.Therefore, the priority action is to assess the fetal heart rate and activity to monitor for signs of hypoxia or distress.
Choice B is wrong because performing a nitrazine test on the fluid is not the first action.A nitrazine test can confirm the presence of amniotic fluid by detecting its alkaline pH, but it is not as urgent as assessing the fetal well-being.
Choice C is wrong because administering oxytocin (Pitocin) IV infusion is contraindicated in this situation.Oxytocin is used to induce or augment labor, but it can causeuterine hyperstimulation,fetal distress, andplacental abruptionif given to a client who has PROM.
Choice D is wrong because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not recommended for a client who has PROM.Trendelenburg position can increase the risk ofcord prolapseandaspirationin this situation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A white blood cell count of 12,000/mm3 indicates an infection that can trigger pre-term labor.The normal range for white blood cell count in pregnancy is 5.7-15.0×10 9 /L, which is equivalent to 5,700-15,000/mm3.
A count above this range suggests an inflammatory response to an infection.
Choice B is wrong because a hemoglobin level of 11 g/dL is within the normal range for pregnancy, which is 10-14 g/dL.
Choice C is wrong because a platelet count of 250,000/mm3 is within the normal range for pregnancy, which is 150,000-400,000/mm3.
Choice D is wrong because a blood glucose level of 90 mg/dL is within the normal range for pregnancy, which is 70-110 mg/dL.
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