A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving vancomycin for a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection. The nurse notices that the client has developed flushing, rash, and pruritus on the face and neck.
What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?
Stop the infusion and notify the prescriber immediately.
Slow down the infusion and administer an antihistamine.
Continue the infusion and document the findings.
Increase the infusion rate and monitor vital signs.
The Correct Answer is B
Slow down the infusion and administer an antihistamine. The client has developed red man syndrome, which is a common adverse reaction to vancomycin that occurs when the drug is infused too rapidly. It is not a serious or life-threatening condition and can be managed by slowing down the infusion rate and giving an antihistamine to relieve the symptoms.
Choice A is wrong because stopping the infusion and notifying the prescriber immediately is indicated for a severe allergic reaction or anaphylaxis, which is characterized by hypotension, bronchospasm, and laryngeal edema.
Red man syndrome does not cause these signs.
Choice C is wrong because continuing the infusion and documenting the findings is not appropriate for red man syndrome, which requires intervention to prevent further discomfort and complications.
Choice D is wrong because increasing the infusion rate and monitoring vital signs would worsen red man syndrome and increase the risk of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, which are serious adverse effects of vancomycin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This drug has a short half-life, so it needs to be taken frequently to maintain effective levels in your body.The half-life of amoxicillin is61.3 minutes, which means that half of the drug is eliminated from the body in about an hour. To keep a constant amount of the drug in the blood and tissues, it needs to be taken every 8 hours or three times a day.
Choice B is wrong because the minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC) is the lowest concentration of an antibiotic that kills 99.9% of bacteria.
Amoxicillin has a low MBC, which means it is effective at killing bacteria at low doses.
Choice C is wrong because the therapeutic index (TI) is the ratio of the toxic dose to the effective dose of a drug.
Amoxicillin has a high TI, which means it has a wide margin of safety and is unlikely to cause toxicity.
Choice D is wrong because the spectrum of activity refers to the range of bacteria that an antibiotic can kill or inhibit.
Amoxicillin has a broad spectrum of activity, which means it can target many types of bacteria, including gram-positive and gram-negative ones.
Normal ranges for amoxicillin are 5 to 25 mcg/mL for peak levels and less than 0.5 mcg/mL for trough levels.
Peak levels are measured 1 to 2 hours after taking the drug, and trough levels are measured just before the next dose.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Slow down the infusion and administer an antihistamine.The client has developedred man syndrome, which is a common adverse reaction to vancomycin that occurs when the drug is infused too rapidly.It is not a serious or life-threatening condition and can be managed by slowing down the infusion rate and giving an antihistamine to relieve the symptoms.
Choice A is wrong because stopping the infusion and notifying the prescriber immediately is indicated for a severe allergic reaction or anaphylaxis, which is characterized by hypotension, bronchospasm, and laryngeal edema.
Red man syndrome does not cause these signs.
Choice C is wrong because continuing the infusion and documenting the findings is not appropriate for red man syndrome, which requires intervention to prevent further discomfort and complications.
Choice D is wrong because increasing the infusion rate and monitoring vital signs would worsen red man syndrome and increase the risk of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, which are serious adverse effects of vancomycin.
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