A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving vancomycin for a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection. The nurse notices that the client has developed flushing, rash, and pruritus on the face and neck.
What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?
Stop the infusion and notify the prescriber immediately.
Slow down the infusion and administer an antihistamine.
Continue the infusion and document the findings.
Increase the infusion rate and monitor vital signs.
The Correct Answer is B
Slow down the infusion and administer an antihistamine. The client has developed red man syndrome, which is a common adverse reaction to vancomycin that occurs when the drug is infused too rapidly. It is not a serious or life-threatening condition and can be managed by slowing down the infusion rate and giving an antihistamine to relieve the symptoms.
Choice A is wrong because stopping the infusion and notifying the prescriber immediately is indicated for a severe allergic reaction or anaphylaxis, which is characterized by hypotension, bronchospasm, and laryngeal edema.
Red man syndrome does not cause these signs.
Choice C is wrong because continuing the infusion and documenting the findings is not appropriate for red man syndrome, which requires intervention to prevent further discomfort and complications.
Choice D is wrong because increasing the infusion rate and monitoring vital signs would worsen red man syndrome and increase the risk of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, which are serious adverse effects of vancomycin.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Slow down the infusion and administer an antihistamine.The client has developedred man syndrome, which is a common adverse reaction to vancomycin that occurs when the drug is infused too rapidly.It is not a serious or life-threatening condition and can be managed by slowing down the infusion rate and giving an antihistamine to relieve the symptoms.
Choice A is wrong because stopping the infusion and notifying the prescriber immediately is indicated for a severe allergic reaction or anaphylaxis, which is characterized by hypotension, bronchospasm, and laryngeal edema.
Red man syndrome does not cause these signs.
Choice C is wrong because continuing the infusion and documenting the findings is not appropriate for red man syndrome, which requires intervention to prevent further discomfort and complications.
Choice D is wrong because increasing the infusion rate and monitoring vital signs would worsen red man syndrome and increase the risk of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, which are serious adverse effects of vancomycin.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Nitrofurantoin is considered a narrow-spectrum drug because it is effective against only a limited range of bacteria, mainly gram-negative bacteria that cause urinary tract infections.
Some additional explanations are:
Choice A is wrong becauseCiprofloxacin is a broad-spectrum drug that can affect a wide range of bacteria, both gram-positive and gram-negative.
Choice C is wrong becauseTrimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is also a broad-spectrum drug that can inhibit the growth of many types of bacteria, including some gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.
Choice D is wrong because None of them is incorrect because nitrofurantoin is a narrow-spectrum drug as explained above.
Normal ranges for urinary tract infection microorganisms are:
• Escherichia coli: less than 10^5 CFU/mL
• Other bacteria: less than 10^4 CFU/mL
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