A woman is in the second stage of labor and has a spinal block in place for pain management. The nurse obtains the woman's blood pressure and notes that it is 20% lower than the baseline level. Which action should the nurse take?

No action is necessary since a decrease in the woman's blood pressure is expected.

Decrease her intravenous (IV) rate to a keep vein-open rate.

Encourage her to empty her bladder.

Turn the woman to the left lateral position or place a pillow under her hip.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. No action is necessary since a decrease in the woman's blood pressure is expected. While a drop in blood pressure is a common side effect of a spinal block, a 20% decrease is significant and can compromise placental perfusion, leading to fetal distress. Intervention is necessary to restore circulation.

B. Decrease her intravenous (IV) rate to a keep vein-open rate. This is incorrect because IV fluids help counteract hypotension. Instead of decreasing the IV rate, the nurse may need to increase fluid administration to improve blood pressure and maintain perfusion.

C. Encourage her to empty her bladder. A full bladder can affect labor progression but does not directly cause or correct hypotension. The priority in this scenario is restoring blood pressure to ensure adequate fetal oxygenation.

D. Turn the woman to the left lateral position or place a pillow under her hip. This is the most appropriate intervention. A left lateral position or elevating her right hip helps relieve aortocaval compression, improving blood flow to the uterus and stabilizing blood pressure. Additional interventions, such as IV fluid boluses or vasopressors (e.g., ephedrine), may be needed if hypotension persists.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Insert an internal fetal scalp electrode monitor. There is no indication for an internal fetal monitor, as the external monitoring shows a reassuring fetal heart rate pattern with moderate variability and no decelerations. Internal monitoring is typically used when external monitoring is inadequate or when fetal distress is suspected.

B. Contact the doctor at once and reposition the patient. There is no fetal distress or abnormal contraction pattern requiring immediate physician intervention. The fetal heart rate is within the normal range (110-160 bpm), and moderate variability indicates adequate oxygenation.

C. Document the finding in the patient's medical record. This is the correct action because the assessment findings indicate a well-oxygenated fetus and a normal labor progression. Contractions every 3-4 minutes lasting 60 seconds are within the expected range for oxytocin augmentation, and no abnormalities are present.

D. Discontinue the IV fluid containing Pitocin (oxytocin). There is no need to stop the oxytocin infusion, as the contraction pattern is appropriate, and there are no signs of uterine tachysystole or fetal distress.

A. "I don't need to see the doctor for another year when I will come back for follow-up B. I will use contraception for the next year C. I need to be monitored for choriocarcinoma during the next year D. I am so sad that I lost this baby

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. "I don't need to see the doctor for another year when I will come back for follow-up." This statement is incorrect because close follow-up is essential after a molar pregnancy to monitor for gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) or choriocarcinoma. Regular hCG level monitoring is required weekly until levels are undetectable, then monthly for at least 6–12 months. Delaying follow-up for a year could lead to missed complications.

B. "I will use contraception for the next year." This statement is correct. Pregnancy should be avoided for at least one year after a molar pregnancy to ensure accurate monitoring of hCG levels. A rising hCG level could indicate malignant transformation rather than a new pregnancy.

C. "I need to be monitored for choriocarcinoma during the next year." This statement is correct. Choriocarcinoma is a potential complication of molar pregnancy, and early detection through serial hCG monitoring is crucial. Any persistent or rising hCG levels may indicate malignancy requiring chemotherapy.

D. "I am so sad that I lost this baby." This statement is understandable. A molar pregnancy is an emotionally distressing event, and feelings of grief and loss are valid. Emotional support, counseling, or support groups may be beneficial for the patient’s mental well-being.

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A woman is in the second stage of labor and has a spinal block in place for pain management. The nurse obtains the woman's blood pressure and notes that it is 20% lower than the baseline level. Which action should the nurse take?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A patient is being discharged from the hospital after the evacuation of a molar pregnancy. The nurse recognizes that additional discharge teaching is required when the patient makes which statement?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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