The nurse is assessing a patient who has severe preeclampsia. The assessment finding that should be reported to the physician is:

2+ Deep Tendon Reflexes.

Platelets of 20,000

Urine output of 75 ml per hour.

1+ proteinuria.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. 2+ Deep Tendon Reflexes. A 2+ deep tendon reflex is considered normal and does not indicate worsening preeclampsia. Severe preeclampsia is often associated with hyperreflexia, typically 3+ or 4+, which can signal worsening central nervous system involvement and an increased risk for seizures.

B. Platelets of 20,000. A platelet count of 20,000 is dangerously low and suggests the development of HELLP syndrome, a severe complication of preeclampsia that includes hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. This condition increases the risk of spontaneous bleeding and requires immediate medical intervention.

C. Urine output of 75 ml per hour. A urine output of 75 mL per hour is adequate and does not indicate worsening kidney function. In severe preeclampsia, oliguria (urine output less than 30 mL per hour) is a more concerning sign, as it suggests impaired renal perfusion and possible acute kidney injury.

D. 1+ Proteinuria. While proteinuria is a key feature of preeclampsia, a 1+ reading is mild and not necessarily indicative of worsening disease. Severe preeclampsia is typically associated with proteinuria of 3+ or higher, along with other symptoms such as hypertension, headache, and visual disturbances.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Maternal temperature of 101.4°F. A fever may indicate infection (chorioamnionitis), but it is not an immediate reason to stop oxytocin. The nurse should monitor for additional signs of infection and notify the provider, but the priority is fetal well-being.

B. Maternal blood pressure of 138/89. This blood pressure is not critically high and does not indicate a hypertensive crisis. Oxytocin can cause fluid retention and slight blood pressure changes, but this reading alone does not require stopping the infusion.

C. Change in fetal baseline heart rate from 125 to 90. A decrease in fetal heart rate (bradycardia) is a sign of fetal distress and requires immediate intervention. Oxytocin can cause uterine hyperstimulation, leading to decreased placental perfusion and fetal hypoxia. The priority is to stop oxytocin, reposition the mother, provide oxygen, and notify the provider.

D. Change in the maternal pulse from 80 to 93. A mild increase in heart rate is not uncommon during labor and may be due to pain, anxiety, or IV fluids. It does not indicate an emergency or the need to stop oxytocin.

A. Occiput anterior position. B. Breech presentation. C. Cervical dilation 5 cm. D. Station-4.

Correct Answer is ["B","D"]

Explanation

A. Occiput anterior position. The occiput anterior (OA) position is the ideal fetal position for vaginal delivery, where the baby’s head is well-engaged in the pelvis. This positioning reduces the risk of a prolapsed cord since the presenting part (the fetal head) effectively blocks the cord from slipping through.

B. Breech presentation. In a breech presentation, the buttocks or feet are the presenting part, leaving more space in the birth canal. This increases the risk of cord prolapse, especially if the feet or buttocks do not fully block the cervix, allowing the umbilical cord to slip past and become compressed.

C. Cervical dilation 5 cm. While cervical dilation is important in labor progression, it does not directly increase the risk of cord prolapse. The risk is more dependent on fetal position and station rather than the degree of cervical dilation.

D. Station -4. A high fetal station (e.g., -4) means the baby’s presenting part has not yet descended into the pelvis, leaving more room for the umbilical cord to slip through once the membranes rupture. A well-engaged fetus at station 0 or lower helps prevent prolapse by blocking the cervix.

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The nurse is assessing a patient who has severe preeclampsia. The assessment finding that should be reported to the physician is:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is monitoring the labor of a patient who is receiving IV oxytocin (Pitocin) at 6 ml/hr. Which of the following clinical signs would lead the nurse to stop the infusion?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A patient has just spontaneously ruptured her membranes. Which of the following factors makes her especially high risk for having a prolapsed cord? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["B","D"]

Explanation

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