A nurse is performing a digital examination on a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor.
Which of the following findings indicates cervical effacement?
Cervix is soft and pliable
Cervix is shortened and thinned
Cervix is dilated and open
Cervix is posterior and high
The Correct Answer is B
Cervix is shortened and thinned. This indicates cervical effacement, which is the thinning and softening of the cervix in preparation for childbirth. Cervical effacement is measured in percentages, from 0% (no effacement) to 100% (fully effaced).
Choice A is wrong because cervix is soft and pliable does not necessarily mean it is effaced. The cervix can soften before it thins and shortens.
Choice C is wrong because cervix is dilated and open indicates cervical dilation, which is the opening of the cervix. Cervical dilation is measured in centimeters, from 0 cm (closed) to 10 cm (fully dilated).
Cervical dilation and effacement are related, but not the same.
Choice D is wrong because cervix is posterior and high indicates the position of the cervix in relation to the vagina. The cervix can move from posterior (back) to anterior (front) and from high to low as labor progresses.
The position of the cervix does not indicate effacement.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid that is given to pregnant women who are at risk of preterm delivery to enhance fetal lung maturity and prevent respiratory distress syndrome.It is usually given in two doses, 24 hours apart, and takes effect within 24 hours of administration.
Choice B.Magnesium sulfate is wrong because it is used to prevent seizures in women with severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, not to prevent respiratory distress syndrome.
Choice C.Nifedipine is wrong because it is a calcium channel blocker that is used to inhibit uterine contractions and prolong pregnancy in women with preterm labor, not to prevent respiratory distress syndrome.
Choice D.Indomethacin is wrong because it is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is used to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and reduce uterine activity in women with preterm labor, not to prevent respiratory distress syndrome.However, it can also cause premature closure of the ductus arteriosus in the fetus and should be avoided after 32 weeks of gestation.
Normal ranges for gestational age are 37 to 42 weeks.
Preterm labor is defined as regular uterine contractions with cervical changes.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can cause renal impairment and elevated serum creatinine levels in both the mother and the fetus.This can lead to oligohydramnios, reduced fetal urine output, and fetal renal failure.
Therefore, the nurse should monitor the serum creatinine levels of the client and the fetus as a potential complication of indomethacin.
Choice A is wrong because indomethacin does not affect the platelet count.It may increase the risk of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effect, but it does not cause thrombocytopenia.
Choice C is wrong because indomethacin does not cause anemia or decrease the hematocrit.It may cause gastrointestinal bleeding or ulceration, which could lead to anemia, but this is not a common or direct effect of the medication.
Choice D is wrong because indomethacin does not cause hyperkalemia or increase the serum potassium levels.It may cause hyponatremia due to its effect on renal sodium excretion, but it does not affect potassium balance.
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