A nurse is performing a digital examination on a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor.
Which of the following findings indicates cervical effacement?
Cervix is soft and pliable
Cervix is shortened and thinned
Cervix is dilated and open
Cervix is posterior and high
The Correct Answer is B
Cervix is shortened and thinned. This indicates cervical effacement, which is the thinning and softening of the cervix in preparation for childbirth. Cervical effacement is measured in percentages, from 0% (no effacement) to 100% (fully effaced).
Choice A is wrong because cervix is soft and pliable does not necessarily mean it is effaced. The cervix can soften before it thins and shortens.
Choice C is wrong because cervix is dilated and open indicates cervical dilation, which is the opening of the cervix. Cervical dilation is measured in centimeters, from 0 cm (closed) to 10 cm (fully dilated).
Cervical dilation and effacement are related, but not the same.
Choice D is wrong because cervix is posterior and high indicates the position of the cervix in relation to the vagina. The cervix can move from posterior (back) to anterior (front) and from high to low as labor progresses.
The position of the cervix does not indicate effacement.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Prepare for an emergency cesarean section.This is because the client has pre-term labor that has not responded to tocolytic therapy, which are drugs that are used to delay delivery for a short time.The client’s cervix is dilated to 4 cm and she is experiencing regular contractions every 3 minutes, which are signs of active labor.The baby is at 33 weeks of gestation, which is premature and may have complications such as respiratory distress syndrome or bleeding in the brain.
Therefore, the client needs an emergency cesarean section to deliver the baby as soon as possible and prevent further risks.
Choice A is wrong because administering magnesium sulfate intravenously is a type of tocolytic therapy that the client has already failed.Magnesium sulfate may also have side effects such as nausea, vomiting, flushing, headache, and muscle weakness.
Choice C is wrong because placing the client in Trendelenburg position, which is lying on the back with the feet elevated above the head, is not recommended for preterm labor.This position may increase the risk of aspiration, decrease cardiac output, and impair gas exchange.
Choice D is wrong because administering antibiotics prophylactically is not indicated for preterm labor unless there is evidence of infection in the uterus or membranes.
Antibiotics may also cause allergic reactions or bacterial resistance
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Infection on speculum examination.
Infection is a major cause of preterm labor and can lead to serious complications for the mother and the fetus.
Infection can be detected by a speculum examination that shows signs of inflammation, such as erythema, edema, discharge, or odor.
Infection can also be confirmed by laboratory tests, such as culture, gram stain, or polymerase chain reaction.Infection should be treated promptly with antibiotics and other supportive measures.
Choice B. Bleeding on speculum examination is wrong because bleeding is not a direct cause of preterm labor, but rather a sign of other conditions that may increase the risk of preterm labor, such as placenta previa, placental abruption, or cervical trauma.Bleeding should be evaluated further to determine the source and severity of the hemorrhage and to manage any complications.
Choice C. Positive fetal fibronectin test (FFN) is wrong because a positive FFN test indicates the presence of fetal fibronectin in the cervical or vaginal secretions, which is a marker of increased risk of preterm labor, but not a definitive marker.
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