A nurse is planning care for a client who is experiencing opioid toxicity. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?
Naloxone
Atropine
Midazolam
Dexamethasone
The Correct Answer is A
A) Naloxone: This is the correct medication to anticipate administering for opioid toxicity. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that competitively blocks opioid receptors, reversing the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression, sedation, and hypotension. Administering naloxone can quickly reverse the toxic effects of opioids and restore adequate ventilation and consciousness in the client.
B) Atropine: Atropine is not indicated for opioid toxicity. It is an anticholinergic medication used to treat bradycardia and to decrease respiratory secretions, but it does not reverse the effects of opioids.
C) Midazolam: Midazolam is a benzodiazepine medication used for sedation, anxiety reduction, and induction of anesthesia. While it may be used as an adjunct in the management of acute agitation or seizures, it is not the primary medication for reversing opioid toxicity.
D) Dexamethasone: Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid medication with anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects. It is not indicated for the treatment of opioid toxicity.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time): While the PTT is a laboratory test used to assess the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy, it is not routinely used to monitor warfarin therapy. Therefore, reviewing the PTT prior to administering warfarin is not necessary.
B) PT (Prothrombin Time): Prothrombin time measures the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Since warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, such as factors II, VII, IX, and X, monitoring the PT allows for the assessment of the anticoagulant effect of warfarin and helps guide dosing adjustments. Therefore, reviewing the PT prior to administering warfarin is essential to ensure appropriate anticoagulation therapy.
C) WBC (White Blood Cell Count): The white blood cell count is not directly related to warfarin therapy monitoring. While an elevated white blood cell count may indicate infection, it is not specific to warfarin therapy and does not influence the administration of the medication.
D) Total iron-binding capacity: Total iron-binding capacity is a laboratory test used to assess iron status and is not relevant to monitoring warfarin therapy. It measures the body's ability to bind and transport iron in the blood, and its results are not indicative of warfarin's anticoagulant effect or dosage adjustments.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Notify the nurse manager about the incident: While it's important to report medication errors,’the immediate concern should be the client's well-being. Notifying the nurse manage’ can be done after addressing the client's condition.
B) Prepare and file an inc’dent report: Filing an incident report is necessary to document the error, but it should not be the first action taken. Ensuring the client's safety and well-being is the priority.’
C) Notify the provider of the medication administration: While it's important for the provider to be infor’ed of medication errors, the immediate concern should be assessing the client's response to the medication.
D) Examin’ the client's vital signs and condition: This is the’correct answer. The nurse's first action should be to assess the client's vital signs and condition to determine’any adverse effects of the medication. Digoxin is a medication used to treat heart conditions, but it can cause harm if administered when the heart rate is already low. Monitoring the client closely for signs of bradycardia or other adverse effects is essential.
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