A nurse is planning to administer phenytoin IV via intermittent bolus to a client who has a seizure disorder and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of dextrose 5% in water (D5W). Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Administer the medication no faster than 100 mg/min.
Monitor plasma phenytoin levels to establish the therapeutic range.
Add the medication to the existing IV solution.
Monitor the client for hypertension.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Administering phenytoin IV no faster than 100 mg/min is crucial to prevent adverse effects such as cardiovascular collapse or severe hypotension. Rapid administration of phenytoin can cause cardiac arrhythmias and should be avoided.
Choice B rationale:
Monitoring plasma phenytoin levels to establish the therapeutic range is a necessary action in managing the client's seizure disorder, but it does not pertain to the specific administration of phenytoin via intermittent bolus.
Choice C rationale:
Adding the medication to the existing IV solution is not appropriate for phenytoin administration. Phenytoin should be administered separately and not mixed with other IV solutions to maintain its stability and prevent interactions.
Choice D rationale:
Monitoring the client for hypertension is not directly related to the administration of phenytoin via intermittent bolus. Hypertension is not a common adverse effect of this medication. However, blood pressure should be monitored as part of routine care for any client on antiepileptic therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A capillary refill of less than 1 second is a normal finding and indicates adequate peripheral perfusion. It is not a cause for concern in this postoperative client.
Choice B rationale:
The presence of a pulse deficit should be reported to the provider because it suggests a discrepancy between the apical and radial pulses, indicating potential cardiovascular compromise or inadequate arterial perfusion.
Choice C rationale:
A systolic blood pressure 10 points lower than before surgery can be a normal response to anesthesia or surgery and may not necessarily require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms or vital sign abnormalities.
Choice D rationale:
Pulse oximetry at 96% is within the normal range for oxygen saturation and does not warrant immediate reporting. However, if the client is experiencing respiratory distress or other concerning symptoms, it should be addressed promptly.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should not include the statement, "If your breath smells fruity, decrease your oral intake.”. in the discharge teaching for diabetic ketoacidosis. Fruity breath odor is a sign of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) due to ketone production. Decreasing oral intake would not address the underlying problem, and the client should be encouraged to seek medical attention promptly if experiencing this symptom.
Choice B rationale:
This is the correct choice. The nurse should instruct the client to check their urine for ketones if their blood sugar is greater than 300 milligrams per deciliter. High blood sugar levels can lead to ketone production, and monitoring ketones in the urine can help assess the severity of DKA and guide appropriate interventions.
Choice C rationale:
The statement, "Drink one liter of fluids daily.”. is not appropriate for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis. Clients with DKA often have fluid imbalances, and their fluid needs should be assessed and managed by healthcare professionals based on individual factors and laboratory values.
Choice D rationale:
The statement, "When nausea is present, drink chilled water.”. is not specific to diabetic ketoacidosis and may not be appropriate for all clients. Nausea can be caused by various factors, and addressing the underlying cause is important. Drinking chilled water may not necessarily alleviate nausea.
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