A nurse is preparing to administer an opioid analgesic to a client who is in active labor.
Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform?
Fetal heart rate.
Deep tendon reflexes.
Blood glucose.
Blood pressure.
Pain level.
Correct Answer : A,E
Choice A rationale
Fetal heart rate assessment is paramount before administering an opioid analgesic during labor. Opioids can cross the placental barrier and cause central nervous system depression in the fetus, potentially leading to decreased fetal heart rate variability or transient decelerations. Therefore, a baseline and ongoing fetal heart rate monitoring is essential to ensure fetal well-being.
Choice B rationale
Deep tendon reflexes are primarily assessed when administering magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, not typically before opioid analgesics. Magnesium sulfate can cause central nervous system depression and affect neuromuscular transmission, necessitating regular monitoring of deep tendon reflexes to assess for signs of toxicity. Opioids do not directly affect reflex activity in the same manner.
Choice C rationale
Blood glucose levels are not a standard assessment before administering opioid analgesics during labor. Blood glucose monitoring is crucial for clients with diabetes or gestational diabetes, or those receiving intravenous dextrose, but it is not directly related to opioid administration and its immediate effects on the mother or fetus.
Choice D rationale
Blood pressure assessment is crucial before administering an opioid analgesic because these medications can cause maternal hypotension due to their vasodilatory effects. Hypotension can reduce placental perfusion, compromising fetal oxygenation. Establishing a baseline blood pressure and monitoring it closely after administration helps ensure maternal cardiovascular stability and fetal well-being.
Choice E rationale
Pain level assessment is fundamental before administering an opioid analgesic. The primary purpose of administering an opioid is to alleviate labor pain. A thorough assessment of the intensity, location, and character of pain guides the choice, dosage, and timing of the analgesic, ensuring effective pain management and patient comfort while minimizing unnecessary medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) colonization in a pregnant client does not typically necessitate a cesarean birth. The primary concern with GBS is the risk of vertical transmission to the neonate during vaginal birth, which can lead to severe neonatal infections like sepsis, meningitis, or pneumonia. Cesarean section is generally reserved for obstetric indications and does not eliminate the risk of GBS transmission if membranes rupture.
Choice B rationale
Intravenous antibiotic prophylaxis is the cornerstone of preventing neonatal GBS disease in colonized mothers. The recommended antibiotics, typically penicillin or ampicillin, are administered during labor once ruptured membranes or active labor commence. This intrapartum treatment significantly reduces bacterial colonization in the birth canal, thereby minimizing the neonate's exposure to the bacteria during passage.
Choice C rationale
A vaginal culture for GBS is typically performed between 36 and 37 weeks of gestation as part of routine prenatal screening. If the client has already been screened and identified as GBS positive at 36 weeks, repeating the culture during active labor is not indicated as the colonization status is already known, and the focus shifts to prophylaxis.
Choice D rationale
Metronidazole is an antibiotic primarily effective against anaerobic bacteria and certain parasites. It is not the drug of choice for Group B Streptococcus prophylaxis. Penicillin or ampicillin are the preferred antibiotics for GBS intrapartum prophylaxis due to their effectiveness against GBS and their favorable safety profile for both the mother and the fetus.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The human body possesses compensatory mechanisms, such as sympathetic nervous system activation leading to vasoconstriction and increased heart rate, that can maintain vital organ perfusion despite significant blood loss. These mechanisms can mask overt signs of shock, such as hypotension, until approximately 20-25% of the total blood volume (around 1000-1250 mL in an average adult) has been acutely lost. This delay in visible manifestations can be critical in situations like postpartum hemorrhage, where rapid blood loss can occur.
Choice B rationale
Hemorrhagic shock typically leads to a state of metabolic acidosis, not an increase in serum pH. This occurs due to inadequate tissue perfusion, resulting in anaerobic metabolism and the accumulation of lactic acid. The reduced oxygen delivery forces cells to switch from efficient aerobic respiration to less efficient anaerobic glycolysis, producing lactate as a byproduct, which lowers the blood pH. A normal serum pH range is 7.35 to 7.45.
Choice C rationale
While urine output is a valuable indicator of renal perfusion and overall circulatory status, it is not the most accurate or immediate indicator of *overall* organ perfusion. Other parameters like mental status, skin perfusion (capillary refill), and arterial blood pressure (MAP) provide more global and rapid assessments of tissue oxygenation. Urine output primarily reflects renal blood flow, which can be maintained by compensatory mechanisms even when other organs are hypoperfused. Normal urine output is generally considered to be 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hr.
Choice D rationale
The standard resuscitation guideline for hemorrhagic shock is to administer 3 mL of isotonic crystalloid solution, such as lactated Ringer's, for every 1 mL of estimated blood loss. This 3: ratio accounts for the rapid redistribution of crystalloids from the intravascular space to the interstitial space, meaning that only about one-third remains within the vascular compartment to expand circulating blood volume effectively.
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