A client is exploring treatment options after being diagnosed with age-related cataracts that affect their vision. What treatment is most likely to be used in this client's care?
Surgical intervention
Corticosteroid eye drops
Antioxidant supplements, beta-carotene, and selenium
Eyeglasses or magnifying lenses
The Correct Answer is A
A. Surgical intervention is the most common and effective treatment for age-related cataracts. Cataract surgery involves the removal of the cloudy lens and replacement with an artificial intraocular lens, which can significantly improve vision.
B. Corticosteroid eye drops are not used to treat cataracts; they are generally prescribed for reducing inflammation in various eye conditions but do not address the lens opacity caused by cataracts.
C. Antioxidant supplements, beta-carotene, and selenium have been studied for their potential role in slowing the progression of cataracts, but they are not considered a primary treatment once cataracts have developed to the point of affecting vision.
D. Eyeglasses or magnifying lenses may help improve vision temporarily in the early stages of cataracts, but they do not treat the underlying cause and are not effective in advanced cases. Surgery remains the definitive treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Anuria, or the absence of urine output, occurs in later stages of shock when there is significant renal hypoperfusion. It is not an early indicator of shock.
B. Hypotension is a classic sign of shock, but it generally occurs after compensatory mechanisms have failed. It is not the earliest indicator.
C. A decreased level of consciousness occurs later in the progression of shock due to decreased cerebral perfusion. It is not the earliest sign of shock.
D. Increased respiratory rate is often the earliest indicator of shock. As the body attempts to compensate for decreased oxygen delivery and tissue perfusion, the respiratory rate increases to enhance oxygenation and eliminate excess carbon dioxide. This compensatory mechanism is typically one of the first signs that shock is developing.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Assessing the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is important to monitor the effectiveness of treatment and manage bleeding risk. Hemophilia A is characterized by a deficiency in clotting factor VIII, which prolongs the aPTT.
A. Applying heated compresses is not recommended for hemarthrosis; instead, cold compresses should be used to reduce bleeding and swelling.
C. Low-dose aspirin is contraindicated for clients with hemophilia because it can further inhibit platelet function and increase bleeding risk.
D. Autologous blood transfusion is not typically required for hemophilia; factor replacement therapy is the standard treatment.
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