A client is exploring treatment options after being diagnosed with age-related cataracts that affect their vision. What treatment is most likely to be used in this client's care?

Surgical intervention

Corticosteroid eye drops

Antioxidant supplements, beta-carotene, and selenium

Eyeglasses or magnifying lenses

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Surgical intervention is the most common and effective treatment for age-related cataracts. Cataract surgery involves the removal of the cloudy lens and replacement with an artificial intraocular lens, which can significantly improve vision.
B. Corticosteroid eye drops are not used to treat cataracts; they are generally prescribed for reducing inflammation in various eye conditions but do not address the lens opacity caused by cataracts.
C. Antioxidant supplements, beta-carotene, and selenium have been studied for their potential role in slowing the progression of cataracts, but they are not considered a primary treatment once cataracts have developed to the point of affecting vision.
D. Eyeglasses or magnifying lenses may help improve vision temporarily in the early stages of cataracts, but they do not treat the underlying cause and are not effective in advanced cases. Surgery remains the definitive treatment.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Distributive shock is associated with decreased MAP, not increased.
B. Decreased venous return occurs in distributive shock due to the pooling of blood in the periphery, leading to reduced preload and decreased cardiac output.
C. Distributive shock typically results in increased heart rate as the body attempts to compensate for decreased blood pressure and venous return.
D. Cardiac output is generally decreased in distributive shock due to reduced venous return and impaired blood flow.

A. Epinephrine intramuscular (IM) injection B. Norepinephrine intravenous (IV) infusion C. Dobutamine intravenous (IV) infusion D. Dexamethasone intravenous (IV) injection

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Epinephrine IM injection is not appropriate in this scenario, as it is typically reserved for treating anaphylactic shock. It is not used for septic shock where hypotension persists after fluid resuscitation.
B. Norepinephrine IV infusion is the correct choice. It is the first-line vasopressor in septic shock management when a fluid bolus does not adequately raise blood pressure. Norepinephrine works by constricting blood vessels, thereby increasing vascular resistance and blood pressure.
C. Dobutamine IV infusion might be considered if there is evidence of myocardial dysfunction or if additional inotropic support is necessary. However, it is not the immediate next step following fluid resuscitation when addressing persistent hypotension in septic shock.
D. Dexamethasone IV injection is not indicated for treating septic shock directly. It may be used in other contexts, such as treating adrenal insufficiency or reducing inflammation, but it does not play a role in immediate blood pressure management in septic shock.

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A client is exploring treatment options after being diagnosed with age-related cataracts that affect their vision. What treatment is most likely to be used in this client's care?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing pooling of blood in the periphery. Which of the following occurs in a client with distributive shock?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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