A nurse is preparing to administer dabigatran to a client who has atrial fibrillation. The nurse should explain that the purpose of this medication is which of the following?
To slow the response of the ventricles to the fast atrial impulses
To dissolve clots in the bloodstream
To reduce the risk of stroke in clients who have atrial fibrillation
To convert atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because dabigatran does not affect the electrical activity of the heart or the conduction system. It does not slow down the ventricular response to the atrial impulses.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because dabigatran does not dissolve existing clots in the bloodstream. It only prevents new clots from forming.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because dabigatran reduces the risk of stroke in clients who have atrial fibrillation by preventing clot formation and reducing blood viscosity. Dabigatran is an anticoagulant medication that prevents the formation of blood clots in the heart and blood vessels. Atrial fibrillation is a condition where the atria beat irregularly and rapidly, which can cause blood to pool and clot in the heart chambers. These clots can travel to the brain and cause a stroke. Dabigatran reduces the risk of stroke by preventing clot formation and reducing blood viscosity.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because dabigatran does not restore normal sinus rhythm in clients who have atrial fibrillation. It does not affect the heart rate or rhythm.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A: Cold and numb sensation distal to the fistula site is a possible indication of venous insufficiency. Venous insufficiency is a condition in which the veins have difficulty returning blood from the limbs to the heart, resulting in blood pooling and reduced perfusion. A new arteriovenous fistula can cause increased blood flow through the artery and decreased blood flow through the vein, leading to venous insufficiency. This can manifest as coldness, numbness, tingling, or cyanosis in the fingers or hand below the fistula site.
Choice B: A raised red rash around the fistula site is not a possible indication of venous insufficiency. A raised red rash around the fistula site can indicate an allergic reaction, an infection, or an inflammation of the skin or subcutaneous tissue. The nurse should assess the rash for size, shape, color, texture, temperature, and drainage, and report any signs of infection or inflammation, such as fever, pus, or swelling.
Choice C: Pain in the right arm proximal to the fistula site is not a possible indication of venous insufficiency. Pain in the right arm proximal to the fistula site can indicate arterial insufficiency, which is a condition in which the arteries have difficulty delivering oxygen-rich blood to the tissues, resulting in ischemia and necrosis. Arterial insufficiency can be caused by atherosclerosis, thrombosis, embolism, or vasospasm. The nurse should assess the pain for location, intensity, duration, frequency, and quality, and report any signs of ischemia or necrosis, such as pallor, coolness, weak pulses, or ulceration.
Choice D: Foul-smelling drainage from the fistula site is not a possible indication of venous insufficiency. Foul-smelling drainage from the fistula site can indicate an infection of the fistula or surrounding tissue. The nurse should assess the drainage for color, odor, amount, and consistency, and report any signs of infection or sepsis, such as fever, chills, malaise, or hypotension.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice a) is incorrect because morphine sulfate is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic that can relieve pain, anxiety, and dyspnea. Morphine sulfate can also reduce the preload and afterload of the heart, which can improve the cardiac output and oxygenation.
Choice b) is incorrect because laboratory testing of serum potassium is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Serum potassium is an electrolyte that is important for the normal function of the cardiac cells and muscles. Serum potassium can be altered by various factors, such as renal function, acid-base balance, medications, or dietary intake. Serum potassium can affect the cardiac rhythm and contractility, which can influence the outcome of the client.
Choice c) is correct because 0.9% normal saline IV at 50 mL/hr continuous is a prescription that requires clarification for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. 0.9% normal saline is an isotonic solution that can maintain the fluid balance and blood pressure in the body. However, 0.9% normal saline can also cause fluid overload and worsen the heart failure symptoms, such as edema, crackles, and dyspnea. The nurse should clarify with the provider if this prescription is appropriate for the client's condition and if there are any parameters or limits for the fluid administration.
Choice d) is incorrect because bumetanide 1 mg IV bolus every 12 hr is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic that can increase the urine output and reduce the fluid volume and pressure in the body. Bumetanide can also decrease the preload and afterload of the heart, which can improve the cardiac output and oxygenation.
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