A nurse is preparing to administer disulfiram 375 mg PO once daily. Available is disulfiram 250 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["1.5"]
Divide the total required dose by the dose available per tablet. 375 mg is the required dose and each tablet contains 250 mg. So, 375 mg divided by 250 mg equals 1.5.
Therefore, the nurse should administer 1.5 tablets of disulfiram.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Reaction formation is a defense mechanism where an individual expresses feelings or impulses that are the opposite of their anxiety-provoking unconscious feelings. For example, someone who harbors unconscious aggressive feelings might demonstrate exaggerated friendliness. However, this defense mechanism is more about behaviors and attitudes rather than physical manifestations.
B. Somatization is the conversion of psychological distress into physical symptoms. It involves experiencing physical symptoms, such as pain or illness, without a clear medical cause. This defense mechanism is common in individuals with anxiety disorders who may manifest their anxiety through physical complaints rather than acknowledging their emotional distress.
C. Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses or emotions into socially acceptable behaviors. It does not typically involve physical manifestations but rather a redirection of emotions or impulses into constructive activities. For example, someone with aggressive impulses might channel them into sports or artistic pursuits.
D. Intellectualization is a defense mechanism where reasoning and logic are used to distance oneself from uncomfortable or threatening feelings. It involves focusing on facts and avoiding emotions associated with a situation. This mechanism is more cognitive and may involve discussing or analyzing anxiety-inducing situations in a detached, rational manner.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Verbal de-escalation involves using calm, non-confrontational communication techniques to help calm the client. This can include speaking softly, using non-threatening body language, and actively listening to the client's concerns. It is the first-line intervention for managing escalating behavior because it aims to reduce agitation without the use of physical or chemical restraints.
B. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication that may be prescribed for acute agitation and aggression in some situations. However, obtaining a prescription requires provider authorization and should not be the first intervention unless the client's agitation poses an immediate threat to safety and verbal de- escalation has been ineffective. It is typically used when other interventions have not successfully managed agitation.
C. Physical restraints should only be used as a last resort and in accordance with institutional policies and legal guidelines. Restraints are intended to prevent harm to the client or others when all other methods of de-escalation have failed and there is an imminent risk of harm. Placing a client in restraints without attempting verbal de-escalation first can escalate the situation further.
D. Seclusion is also a restrictive intervention that should be used judiciously and only when necessary to protect the client or others from harm. It involves placing the client in a designated, secure area where they can be monitored closely. Similar to physical restraints, seclusion should be considered only after attempts at verbal de-escalation have been unsuccessful and there is a clear risk of harm.
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