A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Insert the syringe needle halfway into the client's skin.
Expel the air bubble from the syringe prior to injection.
Administer the medication into the client's muscle.
Apply firm pressure to the injection site following administration.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Enoxaparin is administered subcutaneously, so the syringe needle should be fully inserted into the client's skin.
Choice B rationale:
Expelling the air bubble from the syringe helps ensure accurate dosage and prevents the injection of air into the subcutaneous tissue.
Choice C rationale:
Enoxaparin is administered subcutaneously, not into muscle tissue.
Choice D rationale:
Applying firm pressure to the injection site following administration is not typically necessary for subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hypomagnesemia involves a deficiency of magnesium, and it's not directly related to starting an exercise program while taking lithium.
Choice B rationale:
Hypokalemia involves low levels of potassium, which might not be directly influenced by the client's exercise program.
Choice C rationale:
Hypocalcemia involves low levels of calcium, and exercise is not a primary factor affecting calcium balance.
Choice D rationale:
Hyponatremia involves low levels of sodium in the blood. Starting a new exercise program while taking lithium can lead to increased sweating, potentially causing a loss of sodium. Lithium itself can also impact sodium levels. Monitoring for hyponatremia is important due to its potential impact on lithium toxicity.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Testing negative for HIV does not mean that the client is taking the antibiotics as prescribed. HIV is a virus that weakens the immune system and makes people more susceptible to tuberculosis, but it is not related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
Choice B rationale:
having a positive purified protein derivative test does not mean that the client is taking the antibiotics as prescribed. A purified protein derivative test is a skin test that checks for exposure to tuberculosis bacteria, but it does not measure the effectiveness of the medication regimen. A positive test means that the client has been exposed to tuberculosis bacteria at some point in their life, but it does not mean that they have an active infection or that they are taking the antibiotics as prescribed.
Choice C rationale:
The client has a negative sputum culture. A sputum culture is a test that checks for the presence of tuberculosis bacteria in the mucus that is coughed up from the lungs. A negative sputum culture means that the bacteria are no longer detectable and that the medication regimen is effective. A positive sputum culture means that the bacteria are still present and that the medication regimen may need to be adjusted.
Choice D rationale:
Having normal liver function test results does not mean that the client is taking the antibiotics as prescribed. Liver function tests are blood tests that check for damage to the liver caused by medications or other factors. Isoniazid and rifampin can cause liver damage, so the nurse should monitor the client's liver function tests regularly to prevent or detect any problems. However, having normal liver function test results does not mean that the client is taking the antibiotics as prescribed or that the medication regimen is effective.
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