. A nurse is preparing to administer filgrastim 5 mcg/kg/day subcutaneous to a client who weighs 143 lb. How many mcg should the nurse administer per day? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.) _mcg
The Correct Answer is ["324"]
Here’s the calculation to find the filgrastim dosage the nurse should administer per day:
Client weight conversion:
We need the weight in kilograms (kg) for dosage calculation.
Conversion factor: 1 kg = 2.205 pounds
Client weight (kg) = 143 lb / 2.205 lb/kg = 64.86 kg (round to two decimal places for accuracy)
Dosage calculation:
Prescribed dosage: 5 mcg/kg/day
Client weight (kg): 64.86 kg (rounded value from step 1)
Daily filgrastim dose (mcg) = Dosage (mcg/kg/day) x Client weight (kg)
Daily filgrastim dose (mcg) = 5 mcg/kg/day * 64.86 kg = 324.3 mcg (round to nearest whole number as requested)
Therefore, the nurse should administer approximately 324 mcg of filgrastim per day.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time): While the PTT is a laboratory test used to assess the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy, it is not routinely used to monitor warfarin therapy. Therefore, reviewing the PTT prior to administering warfarin is not necessary.
B) PT (Prothrombin Time): Prothrombin time measures the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Since warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, such as factors II, VII, IX, and X, monitoring the PT allows for the assessment of the anticoagulant effect of warfarin and helps guide dosing adjustments. Therefore, reviewing the PT prior to administering warfarin is essential to ensure appropriate anticoagulation therapy.
C) WBC (White Blood Cell Count): The white blood cell count is not directly related to warfarin therapy monitoring. While an elevated white blood cell count may indicate infection, it is not specific to warfarin therapy and does not influence the administration of the medication.
D) Total iron-binding capacity: Total iron-binding capacity is a laboratory test used to assess iron status and is not relevant to monitoring warfarin therapy. It measures the body's ability to bind and transport iron in the blood, and its results are not indicative of warfarin's anticoagulant effect or dosage adjustments.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Black stools: While black stools can be a potential side effect of gastrointestinal bleeding, it is not commonly associated with high-dose metoclopramide. This side effect is more commonly seen with medications such as aspirin or NSAIDs. Therefore, it is not the most pertinent adverse effect to monitor for with high-dose metoclopramide.
B) Dry cough: Dry cough is not a typical adverse effect of metoclopramide. Cough is more commonly associated with medications such as ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is not the primary adverse effect to monitor for with high-dose metoclopramide.
C) Oral candidiasis: While oral candidiasis (oral thrush) can occur as a side effect of some medications, it is not commonly associated with metoclopramide. Oral candidiasis is more frequently seen with corticosteroids or antibiotics. Therefore, it is not the primary adverse effect to monitor for with high-dose metoclopramide.
D) Tardive dyskinesia: Tardive dyskinesia is a serious adverse effect associated with prolonged use of edicaopramide, especially at high doses. It is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the face, tongue, or other parts of the body. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of tardive dyskinesia, such as repetitive facial grimacing or tongue protrusion, is crucial when administering high-dose metoclopramide to prevent this potentially irreversible condition. Therefore, this is the correct adverse effect to monitor for in clients receiving high-dose metoclopramide.
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