What client population is at risk of developing tardive dyskinesia?

Clients who have received long-term neuroleptic treatment.

Clients who have discontinued their neuroleptic treatment.

Clients who have experienced neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS).

Clients who have received monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIS).

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) Correct. Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect of long-term neuroleptic (antipsychotic) treatment. It is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements, particularly of the face and tongue. This condition is more commonly seen in clients who have been on neuroleptics for extended periods.

B) Incorrect. Discontinuing neuroleptic treatment may lead to withdrawal symptoms or symptom recurrence, but it does not directly increase the risk of developing tardive dyskinesia.

C) Incorrect. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a different side effect associated with neuroleptic medications, characterized by hyperthermia, autonomic dysregulation, altered mental status, and generalized muscle rigidity.

D) Incorrect. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are a different class of medications and are not associated with the development of tardive dyskinesia.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. "It sounds as though the antidepressants are working well. Just ask the client if the client is experiencing any side effects and let me know." This response does not adequately address the change in mood and the potential for hypomania. It assumes the change is solely due to the antidepressants.

B. "I'm concerned. Sometimes depressed people seem contented when they have decided to commit suicide. Let's schedule an appointment for tomorrow." While it's important to assess for suicidality, the description provided does not indicate immediate suicidal intent. The client's behavior is more indicative of hypomania.

C. "Since the client is eating, sleeping, and not behaving inappropriately, there's nothing to worry about. Just let me know if the client starts getting irritable or has trouble sleeping." This response downplays the significance of the mood change and does not address the potential for hypomania.

D. "The client sounds hypomanic. Let's schedule an appointment for this week for an evaluation. The client may need additional or different medication." This response correctly identifies the potential for hypomania and takes appropriate action by scheduling an evaluation. Adjusting the client's medication may be necessary to address the change in mood.

A. Determine what precipitates these hallucinations. B. Distract the client when hallucinating. C. Determine the content of the hallucinations. D. Let the client know you do not hear the voices.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. While understanding precipitating factors is important, it is not the immediate priority when the client is actively experiencing hallucinations.
B. Distracting the client may not address the underlying cause of the hallucinations, which should be the priority.
C. Determining the content of the hallucinations can provide important information for assessment and intervention.
D. Dismissing the client's experience can be alienating and unhelpful.

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What client population is at risk of developing tardive dyskinesia?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

What intervention is a priority when the client is experiencing auditory hallucinations?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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