A nurse is preparing to administer phenytoin 50 mg IV bolus to a client Who has a seizure disorder. The medication is supplied as a 50 mg/mL vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Dilute the medication with sterile water before injecting.

Administer the medication over 1 min.

Follow the IV injection with sterile water.

Slow the injection if the medication crystallizes.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A.   Diluting phenytoin with sterile water before injecting is not recommended, as phenytoin is incompatible with most used diluents. Diluting it can lead to precipitation and potentially cause adverse effects such as tissue irritation and phlebitis.
B.   Administering the medication over 1 min is recommended. Phenytoin should be administered at a rate of 50mg/min.
C.   Following the IV injection with sterile water is unnecessary and not indicated for administering phenytoin.
D. Phenytoin precipitates out of solution when mixed with certain diluents or when administered too quickly. Crystallized phenytoin can cause local irritation, tissue damage, and potentially more serious adverse effects. Therefore, it should not be administered at all.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Olanzapine is used in the management of schizophrenia whose symptom include hallucinations, delusions and disorganized behavior. The expected features is a reduction or elimination of these symptoms.

A. Olanzapine may cause orthostatic hypotension, which can result in a decrease in blood pressure upon standing, but it is not typically expected to cause a decrease in resting blood pressure.

C. Olanzapine has no anticonvulsant effect.

D. Olanzapine causes fatigue and sedation as some of the side effects

A. Administer an inhaled glucocorticoid. B. Determine the cause of the acute exacerbation. C. Obtain a peek flow reading. D. Administer a short-acting ß2 -agonist (SABA).

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Status asthmaticus is an acute, life threatening exacerbation of asthma causes by bronchospasm on exposure to a trigger. Status asthmaticus can lead to respiratory failure. Short acting beta 2 agonists bind to beta 2 receptors on the airway epithelium causing bronchodilation and promotes air flow. They are used as first line due to their short onset of action.
A. Administering an inhaled glucocorticoid is used for long term control of inflammation in asthma but has no role in acute attacks
B. Identification of triggers is important but not a priority in status asthmaticus.
C. Obtaining a peak flow reading is useful but not a priority.

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A nurse is preparing to administer phenytoin 50 mg IV bolus to a client Who has a seizure disorder. The medication is supplied as a 50 mg/mL vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for olanzapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations as an expected response to this medication?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a child who is experiencing status asthmaticus. Which of the following interventions is the priority for the nurse to take?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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