A nurse is preparing to reposition a client who had a stroke. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Reposition the client without the use of assistive devices.
Raise the side rails on both sides of the client’s bed during repositioning.
Discuss the client’s preferences for determining a repositioning schedule.
Evaluate the client’s ability to help with repositioning.
The Correct Answer is D
This is because the nurse should assess the client’s level of mobility, strength, and coordination before repositioning them to prevent injury and promote comfort. The nurse should also use appropriate assistive devices, such as a drawsheet, a trapeze bar, or a mechanical lift, to facilitate safe repositioning and reduce the risk of skin breakdown and pressure ulcers.
Choice A is wrong because raising the side rails on both sides of the client’s bed during repositioning can increase the risk of falls and entrapment.
The nurse should only raise the side rail on the opposite side of the bed from where they are working and lower it when they are done.
Choice B is wrong because repositioning the client without assistive devices can cause strain and injury to both the nurse and the client.
The nurse should use assistive devices that are appropriate for the client’s condition and weight.
Choice C is wrong because discussing the client’s preferences for determining a repositioning schedule is not a priority action when preparing to reposition a client who had a stroke.
The nurse should follow the facility’s protocol for repositioning frequency, which is usually every 2 hours, and adjust it according to the client’s needs and comfort.
The nurse should also involve the client in the care plan and respect their preferences whenever possible.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is an example of a therapeutic communication technique that validates the client’s feelings and encourages them to express their emotions verbally rather than physically.
It also shows empathy and respect for the client’s perspective.
Choice A is wrong because engaging the panic alarm is not the first action to take when interacting with an agitated client.
The nurse should first try to calm the client down by using verbal and nonverbal communication skills, such as maintaining eye contact, speaking in a calm and clear voice, and avoiding sudden movements or gestures.
Engaging the panic alarm should be done only if the client becomes violent or poses a threat to themselves or others.
Choice B is wrong because using a face shield with a mask when providing care to the client is not relevant to the situation.
This is personal protective equipment (PPE) that is used to prevent exposure to infectious agents or body fluids, not to manage agitation.
Using a face shield with a mask may also increase the client’s anxiety or paranoia, as they may perceive it as a sign of hostility or fear.
Choice D is wrong because initiating the seclusion protocol is not appropriate for a client who is agitated, pacing, and speaking loudly.
Seclusion is a restrictive intervention that involves isolating the client in a locked room to prevent harm to themselves or others.
It should be used only as a last resort when less restrictive measures have failed or are contraindicated, and only with a provider’s order and close monitoring.
Secluding an agitated client may escalate their behavior and violate their rights.
Normal ranges for agitation are not applicable, as agitation is not a quantifiable parameter.
However, some tools that can be used to assess agitation include the Richmond Agitation- Sedation Scale (RASS), which ranges from -5 (unarousable) to +4 (combative), and the Agitated Behavior Scale (ABS), which ranges from 14 (no agitation) to 56 (severe agitation).
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This indicates that the client is receiving the therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, which is to prevent seizures by reducing neuromuscular excitability.
Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that is given intravenously to women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure, and protein in the urine during pregnancy, to reduce the risk of seizures or eclampsia. It can also prolong pregnancy for up to two days, allowing drugs that speed up the baby’s lung development to be administered.
Choice B is wrong because 1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of preeclampsia.
Proteinuria indicates that the kidneys are not working properly and are leaking protein into the urine. Magnesium sulfate does not improve the outcomes for the baby and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression for the mother.
Choice C is wrong because a pulse rate of 100/min is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a possible side effect.
Magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure and increases heart rate. A normal pulse rate for an adult is between 60 and 100 beats per minute. A pulse rate higher than 100 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which can be caused by various factors such as anxiety, dehydration, fever, infection, or medication.
Choice D is wrong because urine output of 20 mL/hr is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of kidney failure. A normal urine output for an adult is between 800 and 2000 mL per day or about 30 to 80 mL per hour. A urine output lower than 30 mL per hour may indicate oliguria, which can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, blood loss, shock, or kidney damage. Magnesium sulfate can cause renal toxicity if given in high doses or for prolonged periods.
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