A nurse is presenting a community-based program about HIV and AIDS. A client asks the nurse to describe the initial symptoms experienced with HIV infection. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse include in the explanation of initial symptoms?
Flu-like symptoms and night sweats
Kaposi's sarcoma
Fungal and bacterial infections
Pneumocystis lung infection
Pneumocystis lung infection
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Flu-like symptoms: These are common during the early stages of HIV infection, often within 2-4 weeks after exposure to the virus. They are a result of the body's immune system responding to the virus. Symptoms can include:
Fever Fatigue
Muscle aches
Headache Sore throat
Rash
Swollen lymph nodes
Night sweats: These are also common in early HIV infection and can be caused by the body's attempts to fight off the virus or by inflammation. They can also be a side effect of some HIV medications.
Choice B rationale:
Kaposi's sarcoma (KS): This is a type of cancer that is associated with HIV infection. It is caused by a virus called Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV). KS often appears as purple or red lesions on the skin or in the mouth. It can also affect other organs, such as the lungs and lymph nodes. However, it's not a common initial symptom of HIV infection. It usually develops in later stages of HIV when the immune system is severely weakened.
Choice C rationale:
Fungal and bacterial infections: People with HIV are more susceptible to infections because the virus weakens their immune system. However, fungal and bacterial infections are not typically among the initial symptoms of HIV infection. They usually occur in later stages of the disease when the immune system is more compromised.
Choice D rationale:
Pneumocystis lung infection (PCP): This is a serious lung infection that is caused by a fungus called Pneumocystis jirovecii. It is a common opportunistic infection in people with HIV, but it is not typically an initial symptom. It usually develops in later stages of HIV when the CD4 count (a measure of immune system health) is very low.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Magnet activation: Placing a magnet over the implantable device activates an on-demand feature of the VNS, delivering extra stimulation to the vagus nerve. This can potentially disrupt or shorten a seizure, especially when used at the onset of an aura (a warning sign that a seizure may be imminent).
Patient empowerment: Teaching the patient how to use the magnet provides them with a sense of control and a way to actively manage their seizures. It can reduce anxiety and improve quality of life.
Choice B rationale:
Microwave safety: While there's no definitive evidence that microwaves directly interfere with VNS devices, manufacturers generally recommend avoiding close or prolonged exposure to microwaves as a precaution. Specific guidelines may vary, but they often suggest keeping a distance of at least 15-20 inches from microwaves. The statement in Choice B about 12,000 watts or less is inaccurate and misleading.
Choice C rationale:
CT scans with contrast: There's no contraindication for patients with VNS to undergo CT scans with contrast. The device is designed to withstand common imaging procedures.
Choice D rationale:
Pain management: Burst catheters are typically used for pain management after surgery or during childbirth. They have no direct relevance to VNS therapy or seizure management.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Urine collection from an indwelling catheter is a sterile procedure that requires aseptic technique to prevent contamination of the specimen and potential urinary tract infection. Assistive personnel (AP) may not have the necessary training in sterile technique and therefore should not be delegated this task. Additionally, the nurse needs to assess the patient for any signs of urinary tract infection or other complications before collecting the urine specimen, which is within the scope of nursing practice.
Choice B rationale:
Blood collection for PaCO2 (partial pressure of carbon dioxide) is an invasive procedure that requires assessment of the patient's condition, appropriate site selection, and proper technique to ensure accurate results. This task is within the scope of nursing practice and should not be delegated to AP.
Choice C rationale:
Wound drainage collection for culture also requires aseptic technique to prevent contamination of the specimen and ensure accurate results. The nurse needs to assess the wound for signs of infection, choose the appropriate collection method, and ensure proper labeling and transport of the specimen. This task is within the scope of nursing practice and should not be delegated to AP.
Choice D rationale:
Random stool specimen collection is a non-invasive procedure that does not require sterile technique. AP can be trained to collect random stool specimens safely and effectively, following standard precautions for handling body fluids.
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