A nurse is providing care for a postoperative client. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as indicating the development of postoperative shock?

The client has metabolic alkalosis and warm extremities

The client develops bradycardia and bradypnea

The client has hypotension and is confused

The client has hypertension and anuria

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. The client has metabolic alkalosis and warm extremities: Metabolic alkalosis and warm extremities are not typically indicative of postoperative shock. Metabolic alkalosis may be caused by excessive vomiting or prolonged gastric suctioning, but it is not a hallmark sign of shock. Warm extremities may suggest adequate peripheral perfusion rather than impaired perfusion seen in shock.

B. The client develops bradycardia and bradypnea: Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and bradypnea (slow respiratory rate) may occur as compensatory mechanisms in certain types of shock, such as neurogenic shock. However, they are not specific indicators of postoperative shock. Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and tachypnea (rapid respiratory rate) are more common findings in most types of shock, including postoperative shock.

C. The client has hypotension and is confused: Hypotension (low blood pressure) and confusion are classic signs of shock, including postoperative shock. Hypotension indicates inadequate perfusion of vital organs, while confusion may result from cerebral hypoperfusion. Altered mental status, such as confusion, is a significant neurological manifestation of shock.

D. The client has hypertension and anuria: Hypertension (high blood pressure) and anuria (decreased urine output) are not typical manifestations of postoperative shock. Hypertension may occur in certain conditions that can lead to shock, such as septic shock, during the compensatory phase. However, it is not a primary sign of shock. Anuria may occur in cases of severe hypovolemic shock but is not specific to postoperative shock.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Answer: C. "I am not worried. This sort of thing happens all the time to us 'old people.'"

A. "I brought an updated list of all the medications he takes at home to help you and the doctors determine what the cause of this could be."
This response indicates understanding and proactive involvement in the client’s care. An updated medication list is crucial in evaluating potential causes of delirium, as certain medications or interactions can contribute to changes in mental status.

B. "I notified our family members that they should not come visit for a while, until they are better."
This statement reflects an understanding of the need for a calm environment for the client experiencing delirium. Reducing stimuli and visitors can help the client focus on recovery. It indicates the spouse is aware of the potential impact of social interactions on the client’s condition.

C. "I am not worried. This sort of thing happens all the time to us 'old people.'"
This response indicates a need for further teaching. It reflects a possible misunderstanding of delirium as a normal part of aging, which can be dismissive of the seriousness of the condition. Delirium is often a sign of underlying medical issues and should be treated with concern and urgency. Clients and their families need to understand that delirium is not a typical or benign occurrence and requires appropriate evaluation and intervention.

D. "I am trying to stay positive. I know that most people return to normal, but it is hard to see them like this."
This statement indicates a hopeful attitude while acknowledging the difficulty of the situation. It shows understanding that recovery is possible and reflects the spouse's emotional processing of the situation. Maintaining a positive outlook can be beneficial for both the client and the family during recovery.

A. Dopamine B. Mannitol C. Nicardipine D. Phenytoin

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Dopamine: Dopamine is a catecholamine often used to increase blood pressure and cardiac output in hypotensive states. It does not directly reduce intracranial pressure (ICP).

B. Mannitol: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic commonly used to reduce intracranial pressure in clients with conditions such as subarachnoid hemorrhage, traumatic brain injury, or cerebral edema. It works by drawing fluid from brain tissue into the bloodstream, thereby reducing cerebral edema and ICP.

C. Nicardipine: Nicardipine is a calcium channel blocker used primarily to lower blood pressure in hypertensive emergencies. While it can indirectly impact intracranial pressure by reducing cerebral perfusion pressure, its primary mechanism of action is not targeted at reducing ICP.

D. Phenytoin: Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication used to prevent and control seizures. While it may be indicated in clients who have experienced a subarachnoid hemorrhage to prevent seizures, it does not directly reduce intracranial pressure.

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A nurse is providing care for a postoperative client. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as indicating the development of postoperative shock?

Nursing Test Bank

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