A nurse is providing care to a client who is experiencing wheezing after receiving an antibiotic 20 min ago. Which of the following findings is the priority of the nurse to monitor for?
Decreased blood pressure
Stomach pain
Urticaria
Lightheadedness
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason:
Decreased blood pressure is correct. Decreased blood pressure (hypotension) is the priority finding to monitor for because it is indicative of a severe allergic reaction known as anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a potentially life-threatening condition that can lead to shock, organ failure, and death if not promptly treated. Hypotension in the context of an allergic reaction suggests widespread vasodilation and increased vascular permeability, resulting in a decrease in blood pressure.
Choice B Reason:
Stomach pain is incorrect. Stomach pain may indicate gastrointestinal distress or adverse effects of the antibiotic, but it is not typically as immediately life-threatening as decreased blood pressure in the context of anaphylaxis. While abdominal pain should not be ignored, it is not the priority finding when assessing for signs of anaphylaxis.
Choice C Reason:
Urticaria is incorrect. Urticaria, also known as hives, is a common allergic reaction characterized by raised, itchy welts on the skin. While urticaria can be uncomfortable and distressing, it is not immediately life-threatening. However, urticaria may be a precursor to more severe allergic reactions, such as anaphylaxis, so it is still important to monitor closely.
Choice D Reason:
Lightheadedness is incorrect. Lightheadedness may occur as a result of hypotension in the context of anaphylaxis, but it is not as critical as directly monitoring blood pressure. Lightheadedness may also be caused by other factors, such as anxiety or dehydration, and may not always indicate a severe allergic reaction. While it is important to assess for lightheadedness and monitor the client's overall condition, it is not the priority finding compared to decreased blood pressure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
The client should maintain systolic BP between 120 and 129 mm Hg. This option aligns with current guidelines for blood pressure management following a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Tight blood pressure control is recommended to reduce the risk of recurrent cerebrovascular events, such as stroke. Maintaining systolic blood pressure (SBP) between 120 and 129 mm Hg has been associated with significant risk reduction in stroke recurrence compared to higher blood pressure targets. Therefore, this option reflects the recommended approach for blood pressure management in individuals with a history of TIA.
Choice B Reason:
The client should maintain systolic BP between 136 and 140 mm Hg: This option suggests a systolic blood pressure (SBP) range that is higher than the recommended target for blood pressure management following a TIA. Allowing SBP to remain in the range of 136 to 140 mm Hg may pose an increased risk of recurrent cerebrovascular events compared to tighter blood pressure control.
Choice C Reason:
The client should maintain systolic BP between 141 and 145 mm Hg. Similarly, this option proposes a systolic blood pressure (SBP) range that is higher than the recommended target for blood pressure management following a TIA. Allowing SBP to remain in the range of 141 to 145 mm Hg may not provide adequate protection against stroke recurrence compared to tighter blood pressure control.
Choice D Reason:
The client should maintain systolic BP between 130 and 135 mm Hg. While this option suggests a systolic blood pressure (SBP) range that is closer to the recommended target compared to options B and C, it still falls slightly above the optimal range for blood pressure management following a TIA. Tighter blood pressure control, ideally below 130 mm Hg, is typically preferred to reduce the risk of recurrent cerebrovascular events.
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Loss of teeth is not typically considered a direct factor contributing to obstructive sleep apnea. While the presence of teeth may play a role in maintaining the structure of the oral cavity, it is not a primary risk factor for OSA.
Choice B Reason:
Stroke is correct. Individuals who have had a stroke are at increased risk of developing obstructive sleep apnea. Stroke can cause damage to areas of the brain involved in controlling breathing and upper airway function, leading to disruptions in respiratory control during sleep.
Choice C Reason:
Sleepiness is a symptom commonly associated with obstructive sleep apnea rather than a direct contributing factor. Excessive daytime sleepiness is a consequence of disrupted sleep patterns and recurrent episodes of breathing cessation during the night, which are characteristic features of obstructive sleep apnea.
Choice D Reason:
Fatty deposits is correct. Excessive fatty deposits, particularly around the neck and throat, can contribute to the narrowing and collapse of the upper airway during sleep, increasing the risk of obstructive sleep apnea. Obesity is a significant risk factor for OSA due to the accumulation of fat deposits in the upper airway tissues.
Choice E Reason:
Muscle dysfunction is correct. Muscle dysfunction, particularly of the muscles surrounding the upper airway, can impair the ability of these muscles to keep the airway open during sleep. Weakness or dysfunction of these muscles can lead to increased collapsibility of the upper airway, contributing to obstructive sleep apnea.
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