A nurse is caring for a client who has a transection of the spinal cord at the level of cervical 7. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse anticipate?
The client has no sensation or movement below the level of the injury.
The client has some movement but no sensation below the level of the injury.
The client has some movement and also some sensation below the level of the injury.
The client has some sensation but no movement below the level of the Injury.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason:
The client has no sensation or movement below the level of the injury is correct. This is a characteristic finding of a complete spinal cord injury, where there is total loss of sensory and motor function below the level of the injury. This pattern is often seen in injuries involving the cervical spinal cord, such as at the level of C7.
Choice B Reason:
The client has some movement but no sensation below the level of the injury is incorrect. This finding would be more indicative of an incomplete spinal cord injury, where there is partial preservation of sensory or motor function below the level of the injury. However, with a transection of the spinal cord at C7, it is less likely for the client to have retained movement below the level of injury.
Choice C Reason:
The client has some movement and also some sensation below the level of the injury is incorrect. This finding is not typically associated with a spinal cord injury at the level of C7. With a transection of the spinal cord at this level, there is typically complete loss of sensory and motor function below the level of the injury.
Choice D Reason:
The client has some sensation but no movement below the level of the injury is incorrect. This finding is more consistent with an incomplete spinal cord injury, where there may be partial preservation of sensory function but no motor function below the level of the injury. However, with a transection of the spinal cord at C7, it is less likely for the client to have retained sensation below the level of injury.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Prodrome is incorrect. The prodrome phase occurs before the onset of the headache and can last for hours to days. During this phase, individuals may experience subtle changes that serve as warning signs of an impending migraine attack. Common prodromal symptoms include fatigue, mood changes, food cravings, increased thirst, and heightened sensitivity to light or sound. Tingling of the face and blind spots in the eyes are not typically associated with the prodrome phase.
Choice B Reason:
Aura is correct. The aura phase of a migraine typically occurs before or during the headache phase and involves neurological symptoms. Aura symptoms can include visual disturbances such as blind spots, zigzag lines, or flashing lights, as well as sensory symptoms like tingling or numbness, often starting in one part of the body and spreading gradually. The tingling of the face and blind spots in the eyes described by the client are consistent with the aura phase of a migraine.
Choice C Reason:
Postdrome is incorrect. The postdrome phase occurs after the headache phase and can last for hours to days. During this phase, individuals may experience lingering symptoms such as fatigue, difficulty concentrating, mood changes, and muscle aches. While some individuals may experience visual disturbances during the postdrome phase, the tingling of the face and blind spots in the eyes described by the client are more characteristic of the aura phase.
Choice D Reason:
Headache is incorrect. The headache phase of a migraine is characterized by moderate to severe throbbing head pain, often accompanied by other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light or sound. While visual disturbances can occur during the headache phase, the tingling of the face and blind spots in the eyes described by the client precede the onset of headache, suggesting the aura phase rather than the headache phase.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Smoking tobacco is the primary and most significant risk factor for emphysema. Tobacco smoke contains harmful chemicals and toxins that directly damage the lungs. Chronic exposure to cigarette smoke leads to inflammation and destruction of lung tissue, particularly the alveoli, contributing to the development of emphysema.
Choice B Reason:
Between 20 to 30 years of age. While smoking at any age is harmful to lung health, the risk of developing emphysema increases with prolonged exposure to tobacco smoke over many years. Emphysema is typically a disease of middle to older age, with symptoms often appearing after years of smoking.
Choice C Reason:
Asthma is a chronic inflammatory condition of the airways characterized by reversible airflow obstruction and airway hyperresponsiveness. While asthma and emphysema are both respiratory diseases, they have distinct pathophysiological mechanisms and risk factors. Asthma is not a direct cause of emphysema, although some individuals with poorly controlled asthma may develop chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which includes emphysema as one of its components.
Choice D Reason:
Pollution is not correct. Environmental pollution, including air pollution from industrial emissions, vehicle exhaust, and particulate matter, can contribute to respiratory problems and exacerbate pre-existing lung conditions. While exposure to pollution can worsen respiratory symptoms and lung function, it is not the primary cause of emphysema. However, long-term exposure to certain pollutants may increase the risk of developing respiratory diseases, including COPD, which encompasses emphysema.

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