A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client following surgery for a molar pregnancy.
Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the discharge teaching?
It's normal to have a fever for a few days following surgery.
I will call my doctor if I experience heavy vaginal bleeding.
I will start trying to get pregnant right away.
I don't have to see my provider until I get pregnant again.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
A fever following surgery is not normal and can indicate an infection; hence, this is not a correct statement.
Choice B rationale
Reporting heavy vaginal bleeding to the doctor is appropriate as it can indicate complications such as infection or retained tissue following a molar pregnancy surgery.
Choice C rationale
It is advised to avoid pregnancy for a period after molar pregnancy to ensure hCG levels return to normal and to monitor for gestational trophoblastic disease.
Choice D rationale
Follow-up visits with the provider are crucial after a molar pregnancy to monitor hCG levels and ensure no complications arise, so delaying visits until pregnancy is incorrect.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A BMI of 28 is considered overweight, which can be a risk factor for preeclampsia but is not as strong an indicator as gestational hypertension. BMI alone does not automatically place someone at high risk.
Choice B rationale
Age of 24 is within the typical childbearing age range and is not considered a high-risk factor for preeclampsia. Extremes of maternal age (below 18 or above 35) are more significant risk factors.
Choice C rationale
Gestational hypertension is a significant risk factor for developing preeclampsia. It indicates elevated blood pressure during pregnancy, which can lead to preeclampsia if not managed properly.
Choice D rationale
Gravida 3 Para 2 indicates a woman who has had two previous pregnancies carried to viable gestational age. While multiparity can influence pregnancy outcomes, it is not a direct high-risk factor for preeclampsia like gestational hypertension is. .
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
0.2 mg is the appropriate transcription as it avoids trailing zeros and clearly indicates the dosage, reducing the risk of overdose.
Choice B rationale
0.20 mg is incorrect because the trailing zero could be misinterpreted as 20 mg, leading to a dangerous overdose.
Choice C rationale
2 mg is incorrect as it represents a tenfold overdose of the intended dosage, potentially resulting in serious harm.
Choice D rationale
0.02 mg is incorrect as it represents a tenfold underdose of the intended dosage, potentially resulting in insufficient therapeutic effect. .
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