A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who reports that they cannot afford their prescribed medication. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

"I can arrange for a social worker to talk with you before you leave."

"Contact your pharmacy to inquire about a different medication."

"I can contact the occupational therapist to schedule a home visit."

"You should ask your provider to prescribe a cheaper medication."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A)   This response offers a solution by involving a social worker who can assist the client in exploring financial assistance programs or alternative medication options.
B)   While contacting the pharmacy may be helpful, it does not guarantee a solution to the client's financial constraints.
C)   Involving the occupational therapist for a home visit is not directly related to addressing the client's inability to afford medication.
D)   Instructing the client to ask their provider to prescribe a cheaper medication puts the responsibility solely on the client and may not address the underlying issue effectively.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Increased libido is unlikely due to the loss of testosterone production.

B. Hypoglycemia is not directly related to the surgical procedure.

C. Bilateral orchiectomy, the surgical removal of both testicles, results in a sudden decrease in testosterone levels, which can lead to symptoms such as hot flashes, similar to those experienced during menopause.
D. Increased muscle mass is associated with testosterone production, which would decrease following bilateral orchiectomy.

A. Metoprolol 15 mg IV bolus B. Oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula C. Draw electrolytes along with Hgb and Hct D. Morphine 6 mg IV bolus every 3 hr as needed for pain E. Nitroglycerin 0.5 mg SL now may repeat every 5 min up to 3 doses F. Obtain daily weight G. Atropine 0.5 mg IV bolus every 5 min up to 2 mg if heart rate drops below 60

Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"A"},"F":{"answers":"B"},"G":{"answers":"C"}}

Explanation

A) Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can help reduce heart rate and blood pressure, which is beneficial in cases of chest pain and irregular tachycardia.
B) Oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula is anticipated because the client's oxygen saturation is below normal, indicating they may benefit from supplemental oxygen.
C) Drawing electrolytes along with Hgb and Hct is anticipated as it is important to monitor these levels due to the client's symptoms and history of hypertension and diabetes.
D) Morphine is anticipated because the client reports pain, and morphine can provide pain relief and reduce the workload on the heart.
E) Nitroglycerin is a standard treatment for chest pain due to its vasodilating effects, which can improve blood flow to the heart.
F) Obtaining daily weight is nonessential at this moment because it does not directly address the acute symptoms the client is experiencing.
G) Atropine is contraindicated as the client's heart rate is tachycardic, not bradycardic, and atropine is used to increase heart rate.

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A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who reports that they cannot afford their prescribed medication. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who had a bilateral orchiectomy. The nurse should instruct the client to expect which of the following symptoms?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing the client’s medical record Exhibits For each potential provider's prescription, click to specify if the potential prescription is anticipated, nonessential, or contraindicated for the client. Potential Prescription: Anticipated Nonessential Contraindicated

Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"A"},"F":{"answers":"B"},"G":{"answers":"C"}}

Explanation

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