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A nurse is providing education for client newly prescribed warfarin in preparation for being discharged home. Which of the following should be included the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)

You may start taking warfarin while still on Heparin when you are getting ready be discharged home

You will need to have your aPTT monitored frequently while on Warfarin

Use a soft-bristled toothbrush and avoid brushing too aggressively

You should replace straight razors with an electric shaver to avoid cuts

Increase foods high in vitamin K like dark green leafy vegetables, while taking

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,C,D

The correct answers are:

A. You may start taking warfarin while still on heparin when you are getting ready to be discharged home.

Warfarin takes several days to reach therapeutic levels, so patients often overlap with heparin until the INR (International Normalized Ratio) reaches the target range (typically 2.0-3.0 for most conditions).

C. Use a soft-bristled toothbrush and avoid brushing too aggressively.

Warfarin increases the risk of bleeding, so using a soft toothbrush helps prevent gum bleeding.

D. You should replace straight razors with an electric shaver to avoid cuts.

Since warfarin thins the blood, small cuts can lead to excessive bleeding. An electric shaver reduces the risk of accidental cuts.

B. You will need to have your aPTT monitored frequently while on Warfarin. (Incorrect)

Warfarin is monitored using INR and PT (Prothrombin Time), not aPTT.
aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

E. Increase foods high in vitamin K like dark green leafy vegetables while taking Warfarin. (Incorrect)

Vitamin K counteracts warfarin's effects, so patients should keep their vitamin K intake consistent rather than increasing it.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Respiratory acidosis:
Respiratory acidosis is characterized by an increased CO2 level (above 45 mmHg) due to hypoventilation or impaired gas exchange, leading to a decrease in pH (below 7.35). In this case, the CO2 level is 25 mmHg, which is lower than normal and suggests a loss of CO2, not an accumulation. Therefore, respiratory acidosis is not the correct interpretation of these ABG results.
B. Metabolic acidosis:
Metabolic acidosis occurs when the pH drops below 7.35 due to conditions like kidney failure, diarrhea, or diabetic ketoacidosis. This would typically be accompanied by a low bicarbonate (HCO3-) level (less than 22 mEq/L). However, in this case, the pH is 7.52 (alkalotic), and the HCO3- level is 24 mEq/L, which is within the normal range. Thus, metabolic acidosis is not the correct interpretation.

C. Respiratory alkalosis:
Respiratory alkalosis is characterized by a decrease in CO2 (less than 35 mmHg) due to hyperventilation, which causes an increase in pH (above 7.45). In this case, the pH is 7.52 (alkalotic), and the CO2 is 25 mmHg, which is lower than the normal range (35–45 mmHg). The bicarbonate (HCO3-) level is 24 mEq/L, which is normal and compensatory. This matches the pattern of respiratory alkalosis, where the body compensates with a normal bicarbonate level as CO2 decreases.

D. Metabolic alkalosis:
Metabolic alkalosis occurs when the pH rises above 7.45, often due to excessive vomiting, diuretic use, or antacid overuse, leading to an increase in bicarbonate (HCO3-) levels. While the pH is 7.52, indicating alkalosis, the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level is 24 mEq/L, which is within the normal range for bicarbonate. In metabolic alkalosis, you would typically see an elevated HCO3- level, which is not the case here. Therefore, metabolic alkalosis is not the correct interpretation of these ABG results.

A. Pernicious anemia B. Hemolytic anemia C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Aplastic anemia

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Pernicious anemia:
Vitamin B12 injections are most commonly used to treat pernicious anemia, which is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 due to an inability to absorb the vitamin from the gastrointestinal tract. This condition is often associated with a lack of intrinsic factor, a protein required for vitamin B12 absorption. As a result, the body cannot make enough healthy red blood cells, leading to anemia. The treatment of pernicious anemia typically involves lifelong vitamin B12 injections, making this the correct answer.

B) Hemolytic anemia:
It is not typically treated with vitamin B12 injections. Instead, hemolytic anemia may require treatments that address the underlying cause of red blood cell destruction, such as corticosteroids, immunosuppressive therapy, or splenectomy, depending on the type of hemolysis. Therefore, vitamin B12 would not be the primary treatment for this type of anemia.

C) Iron deficiency anemia:
It is typically treated with iron supplements, either orally or intravenously, rather than vitamin B12. While both conditions cause anemia, the treatment for iron deficiency anemia is not vitamin B12, so this is not the correct choice.

D) Aplastic anemia:
This condition is usually treated with treatments such as bone marrow stimulants, blood transfusions, or bone marrow transplantation, rather than vitamin B12. Vitamin B12 supplementation would not be indicated for the treatment of aplastic anemia.

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A nurse is providing education for client newly prescribed warfarin in preparation for being discharged home. Which of the following should be included the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)

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