A client with a history of hypertension who was prescribed Captopril complains of a chronic dry cough for the past several weeks. Which of the following actions should the nurse recommend?

The client should report to an urgent care for potential hypokalemia.

The client should immediately use an epinephrine auto- injector (Epi-Pen) and call 9-1-1

The client should contact their provider, who may switch them to a different medication

The client should stop taking the Lisinopril immediately.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. The client should report to an urgent care for potential hypokalemia:
While ACE inhibitors like Captopril can increase potassium levels (hyperkalemia) due to their effects on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, they are not typically associated with hypokalemia. The client's complaint of a dry cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors, not an indication of low potassium levels. Therefore, the recommendation to seek urgent care for hypokalemia is not appropriate in this case.

B. The client should immediately use an epinephrine auto-injector (Epi-Pen) and call 9-1-1:
The use of an epinephrine auto-injector is specifically indicated for severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis), which typically present with symptoms such as difficulty breathing, swelling of the throat, or anaphylactic shock. A chronic dry cough associated with the use of Captopril is not indicative of an allergic reaction, but rather a known adverse effect of ACE inhibitors. Therefore, this response is inappropriate for the situation described.

C. The client should contact their provider, who may switch them to a different medication:
A chronic dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors like Captopril, occurring in some individuals due to the accumulation of bradykinin. If the cough is bothersome, the best course of action is for the client to contact their healthcare provider. The provider may consider switching the patient to an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), which does not typically cause this side effect. This is the most appropriate and safe action.

D. The client should stop taking the Lisinopril immediately:
Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, similar to Captopril, and shares the same potential side effects, including a chronic dry cough. However, the client should not stop taking their medication without consulting their healthcare provider. Discontinuing the medication abruptly can result in uncontrolled hypertension and other risks. The correct course of action is to contact the provider to discuss possible alternatives, not to stop the medication independently.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The client is showing signs of fluid overload due to heart failure exacerbation, including:

Progressive shortness of breath (fluid in the lungs)
Jugular venous distention (JVD) (increased central venous pressure)
Crackles in the lung bases (pulmonary congestion/edema)
Bounding pulse (increased circulating volume)

IV diuretics (e.g., Furosemide/Lasix) are the first-line treatment to rapidly reduce fluid overload by promoting diuresis and decreasing pulmonary congestion.

A. The medication should be given with 5-6 hours of the onset of stroke systems B. The medication is a primary treatment for haemorrhagic stroke. C. The medication can be given to prevent clot formation in the context of head trauma D. When given within a certain timeframe, the medication may dissolve an ischemic stroke

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) "The medication should be given with 5-6 hours of the onset of stroke symptoms":
. tPA (tissue plasminogen activator) is typically given for an ischemic stroke, and it is most effective when administered within 3 to 4.5 hours of the onset of stroke symptoms. After this time frame, the risk of bleeding complications increases, and the benefits of the medication diminish significantly. Giving tPA after 6 hours is generally considered outside the therapeutic window for ischemic stroke, though some centers may extend the window based on specific criteria.

B) "The medication is a primary treatment for hemorrhagic stroke":
. tPA is contraindicated in hemorrhagic stroke because it works by dissolving clots, which could worsen bleeding in the brain. Hemorrhagic stroke occurs when there is bleeding in the brain, and administering tPA would exacerbate the bleeding, leading to more severe brain injury and complications. The primary treatment for hemorrhagic stroke is controlling bleeding, often through surgical interventions or managing blood pressure.

C) "The medication can be given to prevent clot formation in the context of head trauma":
. tPA is not used to prevent clot formation, particularly in the setting of head trauma. It is used to dissolve existing clots in cases of ischemic stroke. Administering tPA after head trauma or brain injury could lead to catastrophic complications, such as worsening bleeding, and should be avoided. The use of tPA is contraindicated in trauma-related situations unless the stroke is clearly ischemic and there are no signs of hemorrhage.

D) "When given within a certain timeframe, the medication may dissolve an ischemic stroke":
. tPA is the standard treatment for ischemic strokes (caused by a clot blocking blood flow to the brain). When administered within 3 to 4.5 hours of the onset of symptoms, tPA can dissolve the clot, improving blood flow to the affected area of the brain and potentially minimizing the damage caused by the stroke. Timely administration is critical for maximizing its benefits in reducing disability and improving outcomes.

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A client with a history of hypertension who was prescribed Captopril complains of a chronic dry cough for the past several weeks. Which of the following actions should the nurse recommend?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client in the emergency department is being prepared to receive tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). The nurse knows that which of the following is true regarding this medication?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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