A nurse is providing teaching for a client diagnosed with depression.
Which of the following should the nurse identify as a primary risk factor for this disorder?
Recent history of stressful, positive life events.
Being male and over the age of 80.
Being an only child.
Having elevated levels of serotonin.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
A recent history of stressful, positive life events is not a primary risk factor for depression. While any significant life change can trigger stress and potentially contribute to depression, it is typically negative or traumatic events that are most strongly associated with an increased risk of depression.
Choice B rationale
Being male and over the age of 80 is a primary risk factor for depression. Older adults, particularly those with chronic medical conditions, are at an increased risk of depression. Additionally, while women are more likely than men to experience depression at younger ages, the gender gap narrows with age.
Choice C rationale
Being an only child is not a primary risk factor for depression. While family history can play a role in depression risk, it is typically a history of depression in first-degree relatives that is most strongly associated with an increased risk.
Choice D rationale
Having elevated levels of serotonin is not a primary risk factor for depression. In fact, it is typically low levels of serotonin that are associated with an increased risk of depression. Informed consent Explore
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Explaining the procedure for an upper gastrointestinal series is important for a client diagnosed with gastrointestinal bleeding. However, it is not the first action a nurse should take. The nurse’s initial focus should be on assessing the client’s condition and stabilizing vital signs.
Choice B rationale
Administering pain medication is important for a client’s comfort, but it is not the first action a nurse should take. The nurse’s initial focus should be on assessing the client’s condition and stabilizing vital signs.
Choice C rationale
Assessing orthostatic blood pressure is the first action a nurse should take when caring for a client diagnosed with gastrointestinal bleeding. Orthostatic hypotension (a drop in blood pressure when standing up from a sitting or lying position) can be a sign of significant blood loss. This assessment helps determine the severity of the bleeding and guides further interventions.
Choice D rationale
Testing the client’s emesis for blood is an important part of diagnosing and managing gastrointestinal bleeding. However, it is not the first action a nurse should take. The nurse’s initial focus should be on assessing the client’s condition and stabilizing vital signs.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Quickening is the sensation of fetal movement by the pregnant woman. It usually occurs between 16 and 20 weeks of gestation.
Choice B rationale
Hegar’s sign is a probable sign of pregnancy that is characterized by the compressibility and softening of the cervical isthmus, which is the portion of the cervix between the uterus and the vaginal portion of the cervix. This sign typically presents between the fourth and sixth week of pregnancy. Therefore, if the nurse identifies a probable sign indicating the softening of the lower uterine segment, it is likely that the nurse has observed Hegar’s sign.
Choice C rationale
Braxton Hicks contractions are intermittent uterine contractions that occur during pregnancy. They are not a sign of labor and do not lead to cervical dilation or effacement. Therefore, they would not indicate the softening of the lower uterine segment.
Choice D rationale
Ballottement is a technique of palpating a floating structure by bouncing it and feeling it rebound. In the context of pregnancy, it refers to the movement of the fetus when the uterus is tapped during a pelvic examination. This does not indicate the softening of the lower uterine segment.
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