A nurse is providing teaching to a client about colorectal cancer prevention guidelines. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?

Have a fecal occult blood test every 2 years.

Limit intake of dietary fiber.

Reduce intake of red meats.

Have a colonoscopy every 3 years.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A Reason: Have a fecal occult blood test every 2 years.

The recommendation for fecal occult blood tests (FOBT) is typically to have them annually, not every 2 years. Regular screening is crucial for early detection of colorectal cancer. The American Cancer Society suggests that people aged 45 and older should have an FOBT every year. This test helps detect hidden blood in the stool, which can be an early sign of cancer.

Choice B Reason: Limit intake of dietary fiber.

Dietary fiber is actually beneficial in reducing the risk of colorectal cancer. High-fiber diets, rich in fruits, vegetables, and whole grains, are associated with a lower risk of developing colorectal cancer. Fiber helps in maintaining a healthy digestive system and can aid in the prevention of cancer by promoting regular bowel movements and reducing the time that potential carcinogens stay in the colon.

Choice C Reason: Reduce intake of red meats.

Reducing the intake of red meats is a well-supported recommendation for lowering the risk of colorectal cancer. Studies have shown that high consumption of red and processed meats is linked to an increased risk of colorectal cancer. Reducing the intake of these meats and opting for healthier protein sources like fish, poultry, and plant-based proteins can help lower this risk.

Choice D Reason: Have a colonoscopy every 3 years.

The standard recommendation for colonoscopy screening is every 10 years for individuals at average risk, starting at age 45. More frequent colonoscopies, such as every 3 years, are generally reserved for those with higher risk factors, such as a family history of colorectal cancer or the presence of polyps. Regular colonoscopy screenings are vital for detecting and removing polyps before they can develop into cancer.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Preventive care focuses on measures taken to prevent diseases, rather than treating them. This includes vaccinations, screenings, and lifestyle counseling. Emergency care, which deals with immediate and acute medical conditions, does not fall under preventive care. Preventive care aims to reduce the incidence of diseases and conditions before they occur, whereas emergency care addresses urgent health issues that require immediate attention.

Choice B reason:

Tertiary care involves specialized consultative care, usually on referral from primary or secondary medical care personnel. It includes advanced medical investigation and treatment, such as cancer management, neurosurgery, cardiac surgery, and other complex medical and surgical interventions. Emergency care, which provides immediate treatment for acute illnesses and injuries, is not categorized under tertiary care. Tertiary care is more about long-term and specialized treatment.

Choice C reason:

Primary care is the first point of contact for individuals entering the healthcare system. It includes general health care services provided by physicians, nurse practitioners, and physician assistants. Primary care focuses on overall health maintenance, disease prevention, and the treatment of common illnesses and conditions. Emergency care, which deals with acute and urgent medical conditions, is not part of primary care. Primary care providers may refer patients to emergency care when immediate attention is needed.

Choice D reason:

Secondary care involves specialized medical services provided by specialists after referral from a primary care provider. It includes services such as cardiology, dermatology, and orthopedics. Emergency care, which provides immediate treatment for acute medical conditions, is considered part of secondary care. Emergency departments in hospitals are staffed by specialists who provide urgent and critical care to patients.

A. The client is incapable of providing self-care. B. The client is terminally ill. C. The client is unable to express their wishes. D. The client has refused treatment.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

The condition that the client is incapable of providing self-care does not necessarily make a durable power of attorney enforceable. While incapacity can be a factor, the key aspect is the client’s ability to make decisions. A durable power of attorney becomes effective when the client is unable to make their own decisions, not merely when they are unable to provide self-care.

Choice B Reason:

Being terminally ill does not automatically make a durable power of attorney enforceable. The enforceability of a durable power of attorney is based on the client’s decision-making capacity. While terminal illness might lead to incapacity, it is the inability to make decisions that triggers the use of the durable power of attorney.

Choice C Reason:

A durable power of attorney is specifically designed to be enforceable when the client is unable to express their wishes. This legal document allows the designated agent to make decisions on behalf of the client when they are incapacitated and unable to communicate their preferences. This ensures that the client’s affairs are managed according to their wishes, even when they cannot express them.

Choice D Reason:

The refusal of treatment by the client does not make a durable power of attorney enforceable. The enforceability is related to the client’s capacity to make decisions. If a client is still capable of making informed decisions, even if they refuse treatment, the durable power of attorney does not come into effect.

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A nurse is providing teaching to a client about colorectal cancer prevention guidelines. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?

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