A nurse in a prenatal office is caring for a client who is at gestation and is scheduled for an amniocentesis.
The client asks why ultrasounds are performed prior to the procedure. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
The ultrasound determines there is more than one fetus.
The ultrasound is for determining fetal age.
The ultrasound is for identifying the location and mass.
The ultrasound is for imaging.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A:
While an ultrasound can indeed determine if there are multiple fetuses, this is not the primary reason for performing it prior to amniocentesis. The number of fetuses is typically established earlier in pregnancy through routine ultrasounds.
Focusing solely on multiple fetuses might lead the client to believe that ultrasounds are only conducted in such cases, which is not accurate.
Choice B:
Determining fetal age is a crucial aspect of prenatal care, but it's not the main reason for an ultrasound before amniocentesis. Fetal age is typically assessed through earlier ultrasounds, often in the first trimester.
Highlighting fetal age might misinform the client about the specific purpose of the ultrasound in this context.
Choice C:
This is the most appropriate response because it accurately identifies the primary purpose of the ultrasound.
Amniocentesis involves inserting a needle into the amniotic sac to collect a sample of amniotic fluid. To ensure the safety of the procedure and minimize risks to the fetus, it's essential to accurately visualize the location of the amniotic sac and placenta, as well as assess the position of the fetus.
Ultrasound provides real-time imaging that allows the healthcare provider to visualize these structures with precision, guiding the needle insertion and reducing the risk of complications.
Choice D:
While stating that the ultrasound is for imaging is technically correct, it's too general and doesn't provide the specific reason for its use in this context.
A more informative response would clarify the specific imaging goals for amniocentesis, as outlined in Choice C.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Consuming any amount of alcohol during pregnancy is not recommended. Alcohol can cross the placenta and harm the developing fetus, potentially leading to fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASDs). FASDs can cause a range of physical, mental, and behavioral problems, including intellectual disabilities, learning disabilities, and physical abnormalities. Even small amounts of alcohol can increase the risk of FASDs, and there is no known safe amount of alcohol to consume during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale:
Switching to whole milk during pregnancy can be a beneficial choice for several reasons:
Increased calcium and vitamin D: Whole milk is a rich source of calcium and vitamin D, which are essential for the development of the baby's bones, teeth, and muscles. Calcium also supports the mother's bone health and helps prevent pregnancy-related osteoporosis.
Healthy fats: Whole milk contains healthy fats that are important for fetal brain development and the mother's overall health. These fats also contribute to satiety and can help manage weight gain during pregnancy.
Essential nutrients: Whole milk provides a variety of other essential nutrients, including protein, vitamins A and B12, riboflavin, and zinc. These nutrients support overall health and well-being during pregnancy.
Choice C rationale:
Weight loss during pregnancy is generally not recommended unless specifically advised by a healthcare provider. Pregnancy is a time for growth and nourishment of the baby, and restricting calories or attempting to lose weight can potentially harm the developing fetus. It's important to focus on consuming a healthy, balanced diet and gaining a healthy amount of weight during pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Consuming high amounts of caffeine during pregnancy is not recommended. Caffeine can cross the placenta and potentially affect the baby's heart rate and sleep patterns. It's generally advised to limit caffeine intake to less than 200 milligrams per day during pregnancy.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale for Choice A:
An IV is not routinely initiated prior to a non-stress test. It may be started if a biophysical profile (BPP), which includes an ultrasound, is also being performed, or if there is a risk of complications that may necessitate immediate intervention. However, it is not a standard part of the non-stress test itself.
Rationale for Choice B:
Nipple stimulation is not a standard component of a non-stress test. It may be used in some cases to try to induce fetal movement if the fetus is not moving actively enough during the test. However, it is not a routine part of the procedure.
Rationale for Choice C:
An ultrasound is not typically performed prior to a non-stress test. It may be done as part of a BPP, but it is not necessary for the non-stress test itself.
Rationale for Choice D:
An external fetal monitor is essential for conducting a non-stress test. This monitor uses two belts that are placed around the mother's abdomen. One belt measures the fetal heart rate, and the other belt measures uterine contractions. The monitor records the fetal heart rate and any contractions for a period of 20 to 40 minutes. The test is considered reactive (normal) if the fetal heart rate increases by at least 15 beats per minute for at least 15 seconds twice during the test. This acceleration in heart rate is typically in response to fetal movement.
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