The nurse is caring for a client who might have a hydatidiform mole. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings? Choice Options:
Whitish vaginal discharge.
Excessive uterine enlargement.
Fetal heart rate irregularities.
Rapidly changing human chorionic gonadotropin levels.
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale for Choice A: Whitish vaginal discharge
While whitish vaginal discharge can occur in some cases of hydatidiform mole, it's not a specific or sensitive finding for this condition.
It can also be present in various other gynecological conditions, including normal pregnancy, infections, and hormonal imbalances.
Therefore, relying on whitish vaginal discharge alone for monitoring a potential hydatidiform mole could lead to misdiagnosis or delayed diagnosis.
Rationale for Choice B: Excessive uterine enlargement
Excessive uterine enlargement is a common sign of hydatidiform mole, but it's not always present and might not be detected early in the condition.
The uterus might not be significantly enlarged in early stages, and other factors like multiple pregnancies or uterine fibroids could also contribute to uterine enlargement.
Solely relying on uterine enlargement could miss cases of hydatidiform mole that haven't progressed to a noticeable degree.
Rationale for Choice C: Fetal heart rate irregularities
Fetal heart rate irregularities are not relevant in hydatidiform mole because there is no viable fetus present. Hydatidiform moles are characterized by abnormal growth of placental tissue without a normal fetus developing. Monitoring for fetal heart rate would be inappropriate and misleading in this context.
Rationale for Choice D: Rapidly changing hCG levels
This is the most accurate and reliable finding to monitor for in a suspected hydatidiform mole.
hCG is a hormone produced by the placenta, and it's typically elevated in pregnancy. However, in hydatidiform mole, hCG levels are often abnormally high and rise rapidly.
Serial hCG measurements can accurately detect and track the progression of a hydatidiform mole, even in its early stages. It's considered the gold standard for diagnosis and monitoring of this condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A: Severe nausea and vomiting
While nausea and vomiting can be common in early pregnancy, including ectopic pregnancies, they are not specific indicators of an ectopic pregnancy.
Approximately 70-80% of pregnant women experience nausea and vomiting, regardless of the location of the pregnancy. Hence, the presence of severe nausea and vomiting alone would not definitively point towards an ectopic pregnancy.
Choice B: Uterine enlargement greater than expected for gestational age
In an ectopic pregnancy, the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, typically in the fallopian tube. This means the uterus would not be expected to enlarge as it would in a normal intrauterine pregnancy. In fact, uterine size might be smaller than expected for gestational age in cases of ectopic pregnancy.
Choice C: Copious vaginal bleeding
While vaginal bleeding can occur in ectopic pregnancies, it's not always present and is not the most common initial symptom. When bleeding does occur, it's often lighter than a normal menstrual period and may be brown or dark in color.
Copious vaginal bleeding is more likely to occur in cases of miscarriage or other pregnancy complications.
Choice D: Pelvic pain
Pelvic pain is the most common and characteristic symptom of an ectopic pregnancy.
The pain is often described as sharp, stabbing, or cramping, and it may be localized to one side of the abdomen. The pain can be intermittent or constant, and it may worsen with activity or movement.
The pain is caused by the stretching of the fallopian tube as the ectopic pregnancy grows. In some cases, the pain can be severe enough to cause nausea and vomiting.
Therefore, pelvic pain is the most reliable finding that the nurse should expect in a client with a possible ectopic pregnancy at 8 weeks of gestation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Premature maturity is not a plausible cause of bleeding without contractions at 1 week of pregnancy. Premature maturity, or preterm labor, refers to labor that begins before 37 weeks of gestation. It is characterized by contractions and cervical changes, often accompanied by other symptoms such as lower back pain, pelvic pressure, or a change in vaginal discharge. At 1 week of pregnancy, the fetus is still in the very early stages of development, and premature labor is not possible.
Choice C rationale:
The location of the placenta can sometimes cause bleeding in pregnancy, but it is typically associated with later stages of gestation, such as the second or third trimester. Placental conditions like placenta previa, where the placenta lies low in the uterus and partially or completely covers the cervix, can lead to bleeding, but this is unlikely to occur at 1 week of pregnancy. Moreover, placenta previa is usually accompanied by pain or cramping, which is not present in the client's case.
Choice D rationale:
The frequency and duration of contractions are relevant in assessing labor progression, but they are not a primary cause of bleeding without contractions. Contractions are the rhythmic tightening and relaxing of the uterine muscles that help to dilate the cervix and move the baby through the birth canal. Bleeding without contractions at 1 week of pregnancy suggests a different underlying issue.
Choice B rationale:
Incompetency, also known as cervical insufficiency or cervical incompetence, is the most likely cause of bleeding without contractions at 1 week of pregnancy. It occurs when the cervix is weak and begins to open prematurely, even without the presence of contractions. This can lead to bleeding and potential miscarriage or preterm birth. The fact that the client can feel the baby moving does not rule out cervical insufficiency, as fetal movement can sometimes be felt as early as 13-16 weeks of pregnancy.
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