A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following blood test results should the nurse understand can be a possible cause of atrial fibrillation?
Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Elevated brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
Elevated C-reactive protein (CRP)
The Correct Answer is B
A. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): Elevated ESR indicates inflammation in the body and is not typically associated with the cause of atrial fibrillation.
B. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): This is the correct answer. A common cause of atrial fibrillation is hyperthyroidism, which is characterized by an overactive thyroid gland and often presents with elevated TSH levels. Thyroid hormones play a significant role in regulating heart rate and rhythm. Excess thyroid hormone can lead to increased heart rate and irregular heart rhythms, including atrial fibrillation.
C. Elevated brain natriuretic peptide (BNP): Elevated BNP levels are associated with heart failure and may indicate cardiac stress or dysfunction. While heart failure can predispose individuals to atrial fibrillation, elevated BNP levels themselves are not a direct cause of atrial fibrillation.
D. Elevated C-reactive protein (CRP): Elevated CRP levels indicate inflammation in the body and are associated with various cardiovascular diseases. While inflammation can contribute to atrial fibrillation, elevated CRP levels alone are not a direct cause of atrial fibrillation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Ask the client to move their eyes side to side while keeping their head still: This action helps assess if movement exacerbates the client's tinnitus. Tinnitus that worsens with eye movement suggests a potential vascular cause, as the blood vessels surrounding the auditory nerve may be affected. This maneuver is known as the Valsalva maneuver and can help identify vascular issues contributing to tinnitus.
B. Ask the client to breathe in through pursed lips: Breathing through pursed lips is a technique used to help manage shortness of breath and is not directly related to assessing tinnitus or its exacerbating factors.
C. Ask the client to pull the pinna of their ears up and back: Pulling the pinna of the ears up and back is a maneuver commonly performed during otoscopic examination to straighten the ear canal for better visualization of the tympanic membrane. It is not directly relevant to assessing tinnitus or its exacerbating factors.
D. Ask the client to open their mouth widely: Opening the mouth widely is not typically associated with exacerbating tinnitus. This action is more relevant for assessing temporomandibular joint (TMJ) dysfunction or other oral conditions but is not specific to tinnitus assessment.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "Vision changes occur when the retina begins to breakdown and collect bits of debris": This statement does not accurately describe the changes that occur in the eye during retinal detachment. Vision changes in retinal detachment primarily occur due to the separation of the retina from its underlying tissue layers, rather than the breakdown and collection of debris within the retina.
B. "Vision changes occur when retinal tissue pulls away from the blood vessels in the eye": Retinal detachment occurs when the retina, which is the light-sensitive layer at the back of the eye, pulls away from its normal position along the inner wall of the eye. This separation disrupts the blood supply to the retina, leading to vision changes. The most common symptom of retinal detachment is the sudden appearance of floaters or flashes of light in the visual field, followed by a shadow or curtain effect as the detachment progresses. Therefore, this statement accurately describes the pathophysiological mechanism underlying vision changes in retinal detachment.
C. "Vision changes occur when the cloudy lens alters the passage of light through the eye": This statement describes changes associated with cataracts, not retinal detachment. Cataracts involve clouding of the lens inside the eye, which can lead to vision changes such as blurriness or decreased visual acuity. However, cataracts are distinct from retinal detachment, which involves the separation of the retina from the inner wall of the eye.
D. "Vision changes occur suddenly due to complete obstruction of aqueous humor outflow": This statement describes the pathophysiology of acute angle-closure glaucoma, not retinal detachment. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is characterized by sudden elevation of intraocular pressure due to complete obstruction of the outflow of aqueous humor, leading to rapid onset of symptoms such as severe eye pain, blurred vision, and halos around lights. Retinal detachment, on the other hand, is characterized by the separation of the retina from its normal position, resulting in distinct vision changes such as floaters, flashes of light, and visual field defects.
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