A nurse is reviewing the client’s medical record
For each potential provider's prescription, click to specify if the potential prescription is anticipated, nonessential, or contraindicated for the client.
Potential Prescription: Anticipated Nonessential Contraindicated
Metoprolol 15 mg IV bolus
Oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
Draw electrolytes along with Hgb and Hct
Morphine 6 mg IV bolus every 3 hr as needed for pain
Nitroglycerin 0.5 mg SL now may repeat every 5 min up to 3 doses
Obtain daily weight
Atropine 0.5 mg IV bolus every 5 min up to 2 mg if heart rate drops below 60
The Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"A"},"F":{"answers":"B"},"G":{"answers":"C"}}
A) Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can help reduce heart rate and blood pressure, which is beneficial in cases of chest pain and irregular tachycardia.
B) Oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula is anticipated because the client's oxygen saturation is below normal, indicating they may benefit from supplemental oxygen.
C) Drawing electrolytes along with Hgb and Hct is anticipated as it is important to monitor these levels due to the client's symptoms and history of hypertension and diabetes.
D) Morphine is anticipated because the client reports pain, and morphine can provide pain relief and reduce the workload on the heart.
E) Nitroglycerin is a standard treatment for chest pain due to its vasodilating effects, which can improve blood flow to the heart.
F) Obtaining daily weight is nonessential at this moment because it does not directly address the acute symptoms the client is experiencing.
G) Atropine is contraindicated as the client's heart rate is tachycardic, not bradycardic, and atropine is used to increase heart rate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
A) The client's pain level decreased from 7 to 5 after receiving nitroglycerin. This decrease indicates improvement in the client's condition.
B) The client’s respiratory rate decreased from 24/min to 22/min.
C) The client’s heart rate decreased from 120/min to 100/min.
D) Initially, the client's oxygen saturation was 93% on room air, which decreased to 89%. However, after receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula it improved to 92%.
E) The blood pressure decreased from 176/82 to 110/62.
F) Only one echocardiogram result showing myocardial infarction was provided.
G) Only one reading of I&O was provided showing an output of 32 mL, hence difficult to determine whether there was an improvement.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The client's dyspnea and elevated blood pressure may indicate fluid volume overload. Slowing the infusion rate and notifying the provider are appropriate actions.
B. Lowering the head of the bed may help with dyspnea but does not address the underlying cause of fluid overload.
C. Administering corticosteroids is not indicated based on the client's symptoms and situation.
D. Changing the infusion to lactated Ringer's may be appropriate, but slowing the infusion rate and assessing the client further are the priority actions.
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