A nurse is reviewing the electronic health record (EHR) of a client at 36 weeks of gestation.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as placing the client at high risk for developing preeclampsia?
BMI of 28.
Age of 24.
Gestational hypertension.
Gravida 3 Para 2.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
A BMI of 28 is considered overweight, which can be a risk factor for preeclampsia but is not as strong an indicator as gestational hypertension. BMI alone does not automatically place someone at high risk.
Choice B rationale
Age of 24 is within the typical childbearing age range and is not considered a high-risk factor for preeclampsia. Extremes of maternal age (below 18 or above 35) are more significant risk factors.
Choice C rationale
Gestational hypertension is a significant risk factor for developing preeclampsia. It indicates elevated blood pressure during pregnancy, which can lead to preeclampsia if not managed properly.
Choice D rationale
Gravida 3 Para 2 indicates a woman who has had two previous pregnancies carried to viable gestational age. While multiparity can influence pregnancy outcomes, it is not a direct high-risk factor for preeclampsia like gestational hypertension is. .
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Magnesium sulfate is used to manage preeclampsia and prevent seizures, not for treating postpartum hemorrhage. It does not address the causes of excessive vaginal bleeding post-birth.
Choice B rationale
Tranexamic acid is an antifibrinolytic agent that helps reduce bleeding by preventing the breakdown of blood clots, making it suitable for managing postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice C rationale
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to mature fetal lungs in preterm labor, not for treating postpartum hemorrhage. It has no role in managing excessive bleeding after birth.
Choice D rationale
Terbutaline is a tocolytic used to delay preterm labor by relaxing uterine muscles. It is not used to manage postpartum hemorrhage and excessive vaginal bleeding.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
An increase in serum bilirubin levels indicates worsening hyperbilirubinemia rather than improvement. Effective phototherapy should result in a decrease in bilirubin levels as it helps break down bilirubin into a form that can be excreted.
Choice B rationale
Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are not directly affected by phototherapy. These values are more related to red blood cell count and do not indicate the effectiveness of phototherapy for treating hyperbilirubinemia.
Choice C rationale
A decrease in transcutaneous bilirubin (TcB) levels from 6 hours ago indicates effective phototherapy. Phototherapy reduces bilirubin levels in the blood by converting it to a water-soluble form that can be eliminated from the body.
Choice D rationale
Jaundice typically moves from the head to the lower body as bilirubin levels decrease. Movement from chest to groin level without a corresponding decrease in bilirubin levels does not necessarily indicate effective phototherapy. .
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