A nurse is reviewing the electronic medical record of a middle-aged client who was admitted following a stroke. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a modifiable risk factor for stroke?
Hypertension
Client's age
History of sickle cell disease
Parent who has cardiovascular disease
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason:
Hypertension is correct. This is a modifiable risk factor for stroke. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, significantly increases the risk of stroke. Treating and controlling hypertension through lifestyle changes and medication can help reduce the risk of stroke.
Choice B Reason:
Client's age is incorrect. While age itself is not modifiable, age is a non-modifiable risk factor for stroke. Risk of stroke increases with age, particularly in individuals over 55 years old. However, other modifiable risk factors can be addressed to reduce overall risk.
Choice C Reason:
History of sickle cell disease is incorrect. Sickle cell disease is a genetic disorder characterized by abnormal hemoglobin in red blood cells. While sickle cell disease increases the risk of certain complications, such as stroke in children, it is not a modifiable risk factor in the traditional sense.
Choice D Reason:
Parent who has cardiovascular disease is incorrect. While having a parent with cardiovascular disease may indicate a genetic predisposition to certain risk factors, it is not a direct modifiable risk factor for stroke. However, individuals with a family history of cardiovascular disease may have increased awareness and motivation to address modifiable risk factors such as hypertension, smoking, and diabetes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Prothrombin time (PT) is a laboratory test that measures the time it takes for blood to clot is incorrect. While PT may be part of a comprehensive evaluation in some cases, it is not typically the initial diagnostic test performed for a TIA. A TIA is caused by a temporary disruption of blood flow to the brain, often due to an embolus or transient blockage in a cerebral artery, rather than a primary disorder of blood clotting.
Choice B Reason:
Complete blood count (CBC) is incorrect. A complete blood count (CBC) is a common laboratory test that evaluates the cellular components of the blood, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. While CBC can provide valuable information about hematological conditions such as anemia or thrombocytosis, it is not specific to diagnosing the cause of a TIA. TIA is primarily a vascular event related to transient ischemia in the brain rather than a disorder of blood cell counts.
Choice C Reason:
Computerized tomography angiography (CTA) is appropriate. CTA is a non-invasive imaging test that combines computed tomography (CT) scanning with contrast dye to visualize blood vessels throughout the body, including those in the brain. CTA can help identify any blockages, narrowing, or abnormalities in the blood vessels supplying the brain, which may be contributing to the TIA. It provides detailed images of the blood vessels' structure and can help guide further management and treatment decisions.
Choice D Reason:
Transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) is inappropriate. Transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) is an imaging test that provides detailed images of the heart and major blood vessels using sound waves. While TEE may be indicated in some cases of TIA to evaluate for potential cardiac sources of emboli (blood clots), such as atrial fibrillation or cardiac valve abnormalities, it is not typically the first-line diagnostic test performed in the emergency department setting for evaluating a TIA. Initial imaging studies such as CTA or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain are usually prioritized to assess for acute changes in cerebral blood flow and potential causes of the TIA.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Drooling is inappropriate. Drooling, also known as sialorrhea, is a common symptom in Parkinson's disease due to impaired swallowing and reduced control of the muscles involved in saliva production. Anticholinergic medications can exacerbate dry mouth, which may contribute to drooling. However, drooling is not typically a side effect that would be specifically associated with anticholinergic use.
Choice B Reason:
Anhidrosis is appropriate. Anhidrosis refers to the inability to sweat normally. Anticholinergic medications can inhibit sweating by blocking the action of acetylcholine on sweat glands, leading to decreased sweating and potentially causing hyperthermia. Anhidrosis is a potential side effect of anticholinergic agents and should be reported to the healthcare provider due to the risk of overheating.
Choice C Reason:
Tremors is inappropriate. Tremors are a common symptom of Parkinson's disease and are typically not caused by anticholinergic medications. In fact, anticholinergic agents are often prescribed to help reduce tremors in individuals with Parkinson's disease. Tremors would not be considered an adverse effect that the client should report in the context of anticholinergic therapy.
Choice D Reason:
Rigidity is inappropriate. Rigidity, or stiffness of the muscles, is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease resulting from the loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the brain. While anticholinergic medications can help alleviate some symptoms of Parkinson's disease, they are not typically associated with rigidity. Rigidity would not be considered an adverse effect that the client should report in the context of anticholinergic therapy.
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