A client who has a history of migraines comes into the clinic reporting "tingling of the face" and blind spots in the eyes. Which of the following phases of a migraine is the client experiencing?
Prodrome
Aura
Postdrome
Headache
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason:
Prodrome is incorrect. The prodrome phase occurs before the onset of the headache and can last for hours to days. During this phase, individuals may experience subtle changes that serve as warning signs of an impending migraine attack. Common prodromal symptoms include fatigue, mood changes, food cravings, increased thirst, and heightened sensitivity to light or sound. Tingling of the face and blind spots in the eyes are not typically associated with the prodrome phase.
Choice B Reason:
Aura is correct. The aura phase of a migraine typically occurs before or during the headache phase and involves neurological symptoms. Aura symptoms can include visual disturbances such as blind spots, zigzag lines, or flashing lights, as well as sensory symptoms like tingling or numbness, often starting in one part of the body and spreading gradually. The tingling of the face and blind spots in the eyes described by the client are consistent with the aura phase of a migraine.
Choice C Reason:
Postdrome is incorrect. The postdrome phase occurs after the headache phase and can last for hours to days. During this phase, individuals may experience lingering symptoms such as fatigue, difficulty concentrating, mood changes, and muscle aches. While some individuals may experience visual disturbances during the postdrome phase, the tingling of the face and blind spots in the eyes described by the client are more characteristic of the aura phase.
Choice D Reason:
Headache is incorrect. The headache phase of a migraine is characterized by moderate to severe throbbing head pain, often accompanied by other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light or sound. While visual disturbances can occur during the headache phase, the tingling of the face and blind spots in the eyes described by the client precede the onset of headache, suggesting the aura phase rather than the headache phase.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Placing the client on clear liquids might not be appropriate in this situation because absent bowel sounds in the lower abdominal quadrants could indicate a more serious gastrointestinal issue such as ileus or bowel obstruction. Clear liquids may exacerbate these conditions and are not sufficient to address the underlying problem. Therefore, this option is not recommended until the cause of absent bowel sounds is identified and addressed.
Choice B Reason:
Performing a hemoccult blood test is not directly relevant to the situation described. Hemoccult tests are used to detect occult (hidden) blood in stool, which can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding. While it's important to assess for gastrointestinal bleeding in some cases, absent bowel sounds in the lower abdominal quadrants suggest a more immediate concern related to gastrointestinal motility rather than bleeding. Therefore, this option is not the most appropriate action at this time.
Choice C Reason:
Inserting a nasogastric tube is the most appropriate action in this scenario. Absent bowel sounds in a client with a spinal cord injury can indicate neurogenic bowel dysfunction, which may lead to abdominal distention and discomfort. Inserting a nasogastric tube can help decompress the stomach and intestines, reducing the risk of complications such as aspiration and providing relief from discomfort. It can also help manage gastrointestinal complications until further assessment and interventions can be implemented.
Choice D Reason:
Forcing the intake of fluids may not be appropriate without further assessment and could potentially worsen the client's condition if there is an underlying gastrointestinal issue leading to absent bowel sounds. Additionally, forcing fluids may not address the potential issue of gastrointestinal bleeding.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Drooling is inappropriate. Drooling, also known as sialorrhea, is a common symptom in Parkinson's disease due to impaired swallowing and reduced control of the muscles involved in saliva production. Anticholinergic medications can exacerbate dry mouth, which may contribute to drooling. However, drooling is not typically a side effect that would be specifically associated with anticholinergic use.
Choice B Reason:
Anhidrosis is appropriate. Anhidrosis refers to the inability to sweat normally. Anticholinergic medications can inhibit sweating by blocking the action of acetylcholine on sweat glands, leading to decreased sweating and potentially causing hyperthermia. Anhidrosis is a potential side effect of anticholinergic agents and should be reported to the healthcare provider due to the risk of overheating.
Choice C Reason:
Tremors is inappropriate. Tremors are a common symptom of Parkinson's disease and are typically not caused by anticholinergic medications. In fact, anticholinergic agents are often prescribed to help reduce tremors in individuals with Parkinson's disease. Tremors would not be considered an adverse effect that the client should report in the context of anticholinergic therapy.
Choice D Reason:
Rigidity is inappropriate. Rigidity, or stiffness of the muscles, is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease resulting from the loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the brain. While anticholinergic medications can help alleviate some symptoms of Parkinson's disease, they are not typically associated with rigidity. Rigidity would not be considered an adverse effect that the client should report in the context of anticholinergic therapy.

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