A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report for a client who is in active labor. The client tested positive for group B streptococcus B-hemolytic. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer to the client?
Doxycycline.
Cefotetan.
Ampicillin.
Fluconazole.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is c. Ampicillin.
Rationale:
- Group B Streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic is a bacterium that can colonize the vagina and rectum of pregnant women. While usually harmless to the mother, it can be passed to the newborn during birth and cause serious infections, including pneumonia, meningitis, and sepsis.
- Ampicillin is the first-line antibiotic recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) for the prevention of GBS disease in newborns. It belongs to the penicillin class of antibiotics, which are highly effective against GBS and generally well-tolerated by pregnant women and newborns.
- Doxycycline is not recommended for GBS prophylaxis due to its poor penetration into amniotic fluid and potential for causing tooth discoloration and bone development problems in newborns.
- Cefotetan is an alternative option for women with penicillin allergy, but ampicillin is still preferred due to its lower cost and broader spectrum of activity against GBS strains.
- Fluconazole is an antifungal medication and has no activity against GBS bacteria.
Detailed Rationale for Each Choice:
a. Doxycycline:
- Rationale against:
- Poor penetration into amniotic fluid: Doxycycline does not effectively reach the amniotic sac, where the baby is surrounded, and therefore may not adequately protect the newborn from GBS infection.
- Adverse effects in newborns: Doxycycline can cause tooth discoloration and bone development problems in infants exposed in utero.
b. Cefotetan:
- Rationale for:
- Alternative for penicillin allergy: Cefotetan is a cephalosporin antibiotic effective against GBS and can be used in women with penicillin allergy.
- Rationale against:
- Second-line option: Ampicillin is the preferred choice due to its lower cost and broader spectrum of activity against GBS strains.
c. Ampicillin:
- Rationale for:
- First-line antibiotic: Ampicillin is the CDC-recommended first-line antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis due to its:
- High effectiveness against GBS: Ampicillin has a broad spectrum of activity against GBS strains.
- Good safety profile: Ampicillin is generally well-tolerated by pregnant women and newborns.
- Cost-effectiveness: Ampicillin is a relatively inexpensive antibiotic compared to other options.
- First-line antibiotic: Ampicillin is the CDC-recommended first-line antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis due to its:
d. Fluconazole:
- Rationale against:
- Antifungal medication: Fluconazole is an antifungal medication and has no activity against GBS, which is a bacterium.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Requesting that the provider insert an intrauterine pressure catheter is not the immediate action the nurse should take when the umbilical cord is palpated during a vaginal examination. The priority is to relieve pressure on the cord and improve fetal oxygenation.
Choice B rationale:
Exerting continuous upward pressure on the presenting part is the correct action when the nurse palpates the umbilical cord during a vaginal examination. This manoeuvre is called "vaginal elevation,”. helps lift the presenting part off the umbilical cord, reducing the risk of cord compression and fetal distress until the provider can take further action.
Choice C rationale:
Initiating oxytocin via continuous IV infusion is not appropriate when the umbilical cord is palpated during a vaginal examination. Oxytocin can cause uterine contractions, potentially further compromising the cord and fetus.
Choice D rationale:
Placing the client in the left-lateral position is not the best immediate action for cord palpation. While the left-lateral position is useful for relieving pressure on the vena cava in cases of supine hypotensive syndrome, the priority here is to relieve cord compression, and upward pressure on the presenting part is more effective.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B: Administer a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer’s.
Choice A rationale:
Positioning the client in a knee-chest position is not the standard intervention for maternal hypotension following epidural placement. This position is more commonly associated with cord prolapse or to relieve pressure on the vena cava.
Choice B rationale:
Administering a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer’s is the correct action. Hypotension during epidural analgesia is treated with additional intravenous boluses of crystalloid solution. This helps to increase the circulating blood volume and counteract the vasodilation caused by the epidural.
Choice C rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication used to relax the uterus and prevent premature labor, not for treating hypotension.
Choice D rationale:
Applying oxygen via a nonrebreather face mask at 2 L/min is not the primary treatment for maternal hypotension. Oxygen may be used as a supportive measure if there is evidence of fetal distress or maternal hypoxemia, but the first line of treatment for hypotension is fluid administration.
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