A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report for a client who is in active labor. The client tested positive for group B streptococcus B-hemolytic. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer to the client?
Doxycycline.
Cefotetan.
Ampicillin.
Fluconazole.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is c. Ampicillin.
Rationale:
- Group B Streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic is a bacterium that can colonize the vagina and rectum of pregnant women. While usually harmless to the mother, it can be passed to the newborn during birth and cause serious infections, including pneumonia, meningitis, and sepsis.
- Ampicillin is the first-line antibiotic recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) for the prevention of GBS disease in newborns. It belongs to the penicillin class of antibiotics, which are highly effective against GBS and generally well-tolerated by pregnant women and newborns.
- Doxycycline is not recommended for GBS prophylaxis due to its poor penetration into amniotic fluid and potential for causing tooth discoloration and bone development problems in newborns.
- Cefotetan is an alternative option for women with penicillin allergy, but ampicillin is still preferred due to its lower cost and broader spectrum of activity against GBS strains.
- Fluconazole is an antifungal medication and has no activity against GBS bacteria.
Detailed Rationale for Each Choice:
a. Doxycycline:
- Rationale against:
- Poor penetration into amniotic fluid: Doxycycline does not effectively reach the amniotic sac, where the baby is surrounded, and therefore may not adequately protect the newborn from GBS infection.
- Adverse effects in newborns: Doxycycline can cause tooth discoloration and bone development problems in infants exposed in utero.
b. Cefotetan:
- Rationale for:
- Alternative for penicillin allergy: Cefotetan is a cephalosporin antibiotic effective against GBS and can be used in women with penicillin allergy.
- Rationale against:
- Second-line option: Ampicillin is the preferred choice due to its lower cost and broader spectrum of activity against GBS strains.
c. Ampicillin:
- Rationale for:
- First-line antibiotic: Ampicillin is the CDC-recommended first-line antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis due to its:
- High effectiveness against GBS: Ampicillin has a broad spectrum of activity against GBS strains.
- Good safety profile: Ampicillin is generally well-tolerated by pregnant women and newborns.
- Cost-effectiveness: Ampicillin is a relatively inexpensive antibiotic compared to other options.
- First-line antibiotic: Ampicillin is the CDC-recommended first-line antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis due to its:
d. Fluconazole:
- Rationale against:
- Antifungal medication: Fluconazole is an antifungal medication and has no activity against GBS, which is a bacterium.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
If both the mother and the father are Rh positive, there is no risk of hemolytic disease in the newborn due to Rh incompatibility. Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when the mother is Rh negative and the father is Rh positive.
Choice B rationale:
When the mother is Rh positive and the father is Rh negative, there is no risk of hemolytic disease in the newborn. Hemolytic disease results from Rh incompatibility, which occurs when the mother is Rh negative, and the father is Rh positive.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct answer. Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when the mother is Rh negative, and the father is Rh positive. In such cases, the baby may inherit the Rh factor from the father, leading to Rh incompatibility between the mother and the baby's blood, potentially causing hemolytic disease.
Choice D rationale:
If both the mother and the father are Rh negative, there is no risk of hemolytic disease in the newborn due to Rh incompatibility. Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when the mother is Rh negative and the father is Rh positive.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The incompetent cervix is not related to the client's current situation. An incompetent cervix refers to a weakened cervix that may result in premature dilation during pregnancy, leading to potential pregnancy loss or preterm birth. It is not relevant to the client's current stage of labour and cervical dilation.
Choice B rationale:
Postpartum haemorrhage is the correct condition to be concerned about in this situation. The client is 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated, which indicates she is in active labour. These signs of progress indicate that she is at risk for excessive bleeding after delivery, which is known as postpartum haemorrhage.
Choice C rationale:
An ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, typically in the fallopian tube. This condition is not related to the client's current presentation, as she is already in active labour.
Choice D rationale:
Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe and persistent nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, usually during the first trimester. This condition is not relevant to the client's current situation, which involves active labour and cervical dilation.
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