A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing uterine atony immediately following delivery. The client fails to respond to oxytocin administration. The nurse should anticipate the use of which of the following medications?
Betamethasone.
Hydralazine.
Terbutaline.
Methylergonovine.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to enhance lung maturity in preterm infants and has no role in treating uterine atony.
Choice B rationale:
Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication used to lower blood pressure and is not indicated for the management of uterine atony.
Choice C rationale:
Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication used to relax the uterus and delay preterm labour. It is not used to address uterine atony.
Choice D rationale:
Methylergonovine is a uterotonic medication commonly used to treat uterine atony by causing uterine contractions and controlling postpartum bleeding. It helps the uterus contract and prevents further blood loss.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should assess this client first as they are at 34 weeks of gestation and experiencing epigastric pain and headache. These symptoms could be indicative of preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage. Preeclampsia requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale:
Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms during the first trimester of pregnancy, and at 12 weeks of gestation, it is less likely to be a critical issue compared to potential preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale:
Painful urination may indicate a urinary tract infection, which can be important to assess and treat, but it is not as urgent as potential signs of preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation.
Choice D rationale:
Cramping and spotting can be normal signs of impending labor, especially at 39 weeks of gestation. While it's important to assess this client, it is not the priority over potential preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation with symptoms of epigastric pain and headache.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is **d. The newborn is beginning to cough**.
Choice A rationale:
An irregular respiratory rate in a newborn is not necessarily an indication for nasopharyngeal suctioning. Irregular respirations can have various causes, and suctioning may not be the appropriate intervention.
Choice B rationale:
A respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute is within the normal range for a newborn and does not indicate the need for nasopharyngeal suctioning.
Choice C rationale:
A pulse oximetry reading of 91% is low and may indicate the need for intervention, but it does not specifically indicate the need for nasopharyngeal suctioning. Other interventions, such as supplemental oxygen, may be more appropriate.
Choice D rationale:
The newborn beginning to cough is a clear indication that there may be secretions or obstruction in the nasopharynx, and suctioning may be necessary to clear the airway and improve respiratory function.
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