A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing uterine atony immediately following delivery. The client fails to respond to oxytocin administration. The nurse should anticipate the use of which of the following medications?
Betamethasone.
Hydralazine.
Terbutaline.
Methylergonovine.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to enhance lung maturity in preterm infants and has no role in treating uterine atony.
Choice B rationale:
Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication used to lower blood pressure and is not indicated for the management of uterine atony.
Choice C rationale:
Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication used to relax the uterus and delay preterm labour. It is not used to address uterine atony.
Choice D rationale:
Methylergonovine is a uterotonic medication commonly used to treat uterine atony by causing uterine contractions and controlling postpartum bleeding. It helps the uterus contract and prevents further blood loss.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Placing the client in a Trendelenburg position (head down and feet up) is not recommended after a convulsion in a pregnant client. It could potentially compromise blood flow to the brain and fetus. The priority after a convulsion is to ensure the client's airway and oxygenation.
Choice B rationale:
Assisting the client to void might be necessary during the course of care but is not the immediate action needed after a convulsion. The priority is to address airway and oxygenation needs.
Choice C rationale:
Administering oxygen to the client via face mask at 10 L/min is the correct action after the client experiences a convulsion. Eclampsia is a severe complication of preeclampsia, characterized by seizures. Providing oxygen ensures adequate oxygenation to the brain and vital organs during and after the convulsion.
Choice D rationale:
Giving calcium gluconate is not the appropriate action for eclampsia. Calcium gluconate is used to treat hyperkalemia and calcium channel blocker overdose. It does not address the underlying issue of eclampsia or prevent further convulsions. The immediate focus should be on managing the convulsions and ensuring the client's safety and well-being.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Vibroacoustic stimulation is an appropriate action to perform during a nonstress test if there are no fetal heart rate accelerations. It involves using sound or vibration to stimulate the fetus, potentially eliciting the desired heart rate accelerations.
Choice B rationale:
Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is not indicated in this situation. It may not benefit the fetus and is not a standard intervention for nonreactive nonstress test results.
Choice C rationale:
Conducting a vaginal exam is not relevant to the situation described in the question. A nonreactive nonstress test does not require a vaginal exam.
Choice D rationale:
Collecting a specimen for an indirect Coombs test is not necessary for this scenario. The test result would not provide information relevant to the nonreactive nonstress test.
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