A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who has a panic disorder and is taking clonazepam.
Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?
Hemoglobin 16 g/dL.
WBC Count 8,000/mm3.
RBC Count 4.9 million/mm².
Platelets 100,000/mm3.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Hemoglobin levels at 16 g/dL are within the normal range for an adult, so there is no need to report this result to the provider.
Choice B rationale:
A white blood cell (WBC) count of 8,000/mm3 is within the normal range, and there is no need to report this result to the provider.
Choice C rationale:
An RBC count of 4.9 million/mm² is within the normal range for adults, so it does not require reporting to the provider.
Choice D rationale:
A platelet count of 100,000/mm3 is below the normal range (typically 150,000-450,000/mm3). This lower platelet count can increase the risk of bleeding and may be associated with clonazepam use. Therefore, it should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and potential adjustment of the medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Asking the client to describe what makes them feel stressed is important for understanding their situation, but it is not the immediate priority when there is concern about self-harm.
Choice B rationale:
Inquiring about the client's past coping mechanisms is relevant, but it should not be the first question when there is a potential risk of self-harm.
Choice C rationale:
Discussing what the client is experiencing is important, but it is not the primary concern when there is a risk of self-harm.
Choice D rationale:
Asking the client if they are thinking of harming themselves is the immediate priority in this situation. It helps assess the client's safety and the need for further intervention. Please let me know if you have more questions or need further explanations. .
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Answer is: **Stop the newly licensed nurse from administering the medication.**
Explanation:the first step in dealing with a client who is manic and refuses treatment is to stop the nurse from administering the medication. This is because giving an injection to a patient in an agitated and manic state could be dangerous for both the patient and the nurse¹². The nurse manager should follow the principle of least restrictive intervention when handling such a situation².
The other options are incorrect because:
- Assessing the need for physical restraints is not a priority action, as it may escalate the situation and cause more harm than good¹².
- Demonstrating how to verbally de-escalate the situation is also not a priority action, as it may not be effective if the client is too agitated or irrational to listen¹².
- Discussing the purpose of the medication with the client may be helpful, but it should be done after assessing the need for physical restraints and trying other methods of communication¹².
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