A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who had a myocardial infarction 3 hr ago. The nurse should expect which of the following laboratory values to be elevated?
Serum amylase
Unconjugated bilirubin
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST).
Troponin I
The Correct Answer is D
A. Serum amylase: Serum amylase is an enzyme associated with pancreatic function, and its elevation is not specific to myocardial infarction.
B. Unconjugated bilirubin: Elevation of unconjugated bilirubin is associated with liver function and hemolysis, not specifically with myocardial infarction.
C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST): While AST may be elevated in conditions affecting the heart, it is not as specific or sensitive for myocardial infarction as troponin I.
D. Troponin I: This is the correct answer. Troponin I is a cardiac-specific biomarker released into the bloodstream when there is damage to cardiac muscle, such as during a myocardial infarction. Troponin I levels start to rise within 3-4 hours after the onset of myocardial infarction, making it a crucial marker for early detection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. "This test will help my provider adjust my warfarin dosages": aPTT is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy. Instead, it is more commonly associated with monitoring heparin therapy.
B. "If my levels are too low, I am at an increased risk for bleeding": This statement is inaccurate. Low levels of clotting factors could lead to a prolonged aPTT, which might increase the risk of bleeding.
C. "It measures deficiencies in clotting factors."
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is a laboratory test that evaluates the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. The aPTT measures the time it takes for a clot to form and reflects the activity of various clotting factors, including factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII. An elevated aPTT may indicate a deficiency or dysfunction of one or more clotting factors.
D. "I will need to skip breakfast until after the test is complete": There is no need for the client to skip breakfast before an aPTT test. The test is not affected by food intake.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Administer enteric-coated acetaminophen: Acetaminophen is not typically used to address the symptoms described by the client, such as pain in the jaw, back, and shoulder, shortness of breath, and nausea. Moreover, an enteric-coated form of acetaminophen is not likely to address the acute symptoms.
B. Administer ibuprofen: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and may not be appropriate for the reported symptoms, especially if they are indicative of a cardiac event.
C. Obtain an EKG: This is the correct answer. The client's symptoms, including pain in the jaw, back, and shoulder, shortness of breath, and nausea, are concerning for a possible cardiac event, such as a myocardial infarction (heart attack). An electrocardiogram (EKG) is a crucial diagnostic tool to assess for cardiac abnormalities and should be done promptly.
D. Maintain oxygen saturations greater than or equal to 92%: While maintaining adequate oxygen saturation is important in various clinical situations, the client's symptoms, especially when associated with potential cardiac issues, warrant an immediate EKG to assess for cardiac abnormalities.
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