A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who had a myocardial infarction 3 hr ago. The nurse should expect which of the following laboratory values to be elevated?
Serum amylase
Unconjugated bilirubin
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST).
Troponin I
The Correct Answer is D
A. Serum amylase: Serum amylase is an enzyme associated with pancreatic function, and its elevation is not specific to myocardial infarction.
B. Unconjugated bilirubin: Elevation of unconjugated bilirubin is associated with liver function and hemolysis, not specifically with myocardial infarction.
C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST): While AST may be elevated in conditions affecting the heart, it is not as specific or sensitive for myocardial infarction as troponin I.
D. Troponin I: This is the correct answer. Troponin I is a cardiac-specific biomarker released into the bloodstream when there is damage to cardiac muscle, such as during a myocardial infarction. Troponin I levels start to rise within 3-4 hours after the onset of myocardial infarction, making it a crucial marker for early detection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Aplastic anemia results in an inability to absorb vitamin B12: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not related to the absorption of vitamin B12. It primarily involves a decrease in the production of blood cells by the bone marrow.
B. Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs: This is the correct information. Aplastic anemia is a condition characterized by the failure of the bone marrow to produce an adequate number of blood cells, including red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets.
C. Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not associated with an increased rate of RBC destruction. Instead, it is characterized by a reduction in the number of blood cells produced by the bone marrow.
D. Aplastic anemia is associated with a decreased intake of iron: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not related to a decreased intake of iron. It is primarily a disorder of bone marrow function leading to insufficient production of blood cells.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "The medication can take up to 15 minutes to take effect." - This statement is not accurate, sublingual nitroglycerin works rapidly and often provides relief within a few minutes.
B. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered by placing the tablet under the tongue, and it should be allowed to dissolve or be absorbed directly into the bloodstream through the mucous membranes. It is not swallowed or chewed. The small sip of water can help facilitate the dissolving process.
C. "Avoid taking the medication prior to exercising." - This statement is not accurate. Nitroglycerin can be taken before anticipated exertion or activities that may trigger angina to prevent anginal episodes during physical activity.
D. "Stop taking the medication and notify your provider if you develop a headache." - While headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin, they are generally transient and not a reason to stop taking the medication. Persistent or severe headaches should be reported to the healthcare provider.
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