A college health nurse interprets the peak expiratory flow rate for a student who has asthma and finds that the student is in the yellow zone of his asthma action plan. The nurse should base her actions on which of the following information? (Select all that apply.)
The student needs to go to the hospital.
The nurse should obtain a second expiratory flow rate.
The student's peak flow is 50% to 80% of his best peak flow.
The student should use his quick-relief inhaler.
The student's asthma is not well controlled,
Correct Answer : B,C,D,E
Asthma action plans often use a color-coded system to guide management based on peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) measurements. The zones are typically green (80-100% of personal best), yellow (50-79% of personal best), and red (less than 50% of personal best).
A. The student needs to go to the hospital.
This is not necessarily required when the student is in the yellow zone. The yellow zone indicates caution and the need for intervention, but it does not immediately require hospitalization unless symptoms worsen or do not improve after using the quick-relief inhaler.
B. The nurse should obtain a second expiratory flow rate.
Confirming the peak flow measurement with a second reading ensures accuracy and helps to make informed decisions about the student's asthma management.
C. The student should use his quick-relief inhaler.
In the yellow zone, indicating moderate impairment, the use of a quick-relief (rescue) inhaler is often recommended to relieve symptoms and prevent progression to the red zone.
D. The student's peak flow is 50% to 80% of his best peak flow.
This is the correct range for the yellow zone, indicating moderate impairment. Action is needed to prevent worsening.
E. The student's asthma is not well controlled.
Being in the yellow zone indicates that the asthma is not well controlled and may require adjustments in the long-term management plan, including possible changes to daily controller medications.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "DIC is controllable with lifelong heparin usage": This statement is not accurate. While heparin may be used in the treatment of DIC, it is not a lifelong therapy, and the approach to treatment depends on the underlying cause.
B. "DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen": This is the correct answer. DIC is a condition characterized by widespread activation of the clotting cascade, leading to the formation of microthrombi throughout the body. Abnormal coagulation involves the consumption of clotting factors, including fibrinogen.
C. "DIC is a genetic disorder involving a vitamin K deficiency": This statement is not accurate. DIC is not a genetic disorder, and it is not primarily related to vitamin K deficiency. It is an acquired condition often associated with severe infections, sepsis, trauma, or other critical illnesses.
D. "DIC is characterized by an elevated platelet count": This statement is not accurate. In DIC, there is often a decrease in platelet count due to consumption and activation of platelets in the widespread formation of microthrombi.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. RBC (Red Blood Cells): ITP primarily affects platelet levels, not red blood cells. Therefore, red blood cell counts are not typically decreased in ITP.
B. Platelets: This is the correct answer. ITP is characterized by a low platelet count due to immune-mediated destruction of platelets. A decreased platelet count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding.
C. Granulocytes: While ITP primarily affects platelets, it does not have a direct impact on granulocyte counts. Granulocytes are a type of white blood cell.
D. WBC (White Blood Cells): ITP primarily affects platelets, not white blood cells. Therefore, white blood cell counts are not typically decreased in ITP.
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