A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who is taking a garlic supplement. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings is a contraindication for taking this supplement?
The client is taking an antidepressant.
The client has a history of a seizure disorder.
The client takes aspirin daily.
The client has a history of rheumatoid arthritis
The Correct Answer is C
- A: Garlic supplements are not contraindicated for clients taking antidepressants. While garlic is known to have a variety of health benefits, there is no well-documented interaction between garlic supplements and antidepressants that would contraindicate their concurrent use.
- B: There is no direct contraindication for the use of garlic supplements in clients with a history of seizure disorders. Garlic supplements do not have a seizure threshold-lowering effect, which is a common concern with some medications and conditions that may exacerbate seizure disorders.
- C: Garlic supplements may increase the risk of bleeding, especially when taken with other substances that have anticoagulant properties, such as aspirin. This is due to garlic's potential effect on platelet aggregation and the blood clotting process, making it a contraindication for clients who take aspirin daily.
- D: Garlic supplements do not have a contraindication for clients with a history of rheumatoid arthritis. In fact, some studies suggest that garlic may have anti-inflammatory properties, which could be beneficial for individuals with inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale for A: Decreased reflexes can indicate hypokalemia, an adverse effect of loop diuretics. Loop diuretics increase the excretion of potassium, which can lead to low potassium levels, manifesting as muscle weakness and diminished reflexes.
Rationale for B: Weight gain, especially in the context of heart failure, suggests fluid retention rather than an adverse effect of a loop diuretic, which is expected to reduce fluid retention by promoting diuresis.
Rationale for C: Increased urinary output is an expected effect of loop diuretics, as they are used to remove excess fluid. This would not be considered an adverse effect unless it leads to dehydration or electrolyte imbalances.
Rationale for D: Jugular vein distention indicates fluid overload, which would suggest that the diuretic is not effective or that the heart failure is worsening. It is not a direct adverse effect of the medication itself.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A.
A. Ventrogluteal - The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections in adults due to its proximity to large, deep muscles and minimal risk of injury to major nerves and blood vessels.
B. Dorsogluteal - The dorsogluteal site is not recommended for intramuscular injections due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve and superior gluteal artery.
C. Vastus lateralis - The vastus lateralis is a safe site for intramuscular injections, particularly in infants and young children.
D. Rectus femoris - The rectus femoris muscle is not typically used for intramuscular injections due to its superficial location and proximity to major blood vessels.
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